Other Faculties

COMPUTER SCIENCE MCQs


The term ‘Computer’ is derived from—–?

A. Latin (Answer)

B. German

C. French

D. Arabic


Who is the father of Computer?

A. Allen Turing

B. Charles Babbage (Answer)

C. Simur Cray

D. Augusta


Adaming The basic operations performed by a computer are—–?

A. Arithmetic operation

B. Logical operation

C. Storage and relative

D. All the above (Answer)


Who is the father of Internet ?

A. Chares Babbage

B. Vint Cerf (Answer)

C. Denis Riche

D. Martin Cooper


If a computer has more than one processor then it is known as—–?

A. Uni-process

B. Multiprocessor (Answer)

C. Multi-threaded

D. Multi-programming


A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text or other images into digital form is——?

A. Keyboard

B. Scanner (Answer)

C. OMR

D. None of these


A collection of system programs that controls and co-ordinates the overall operations of a computer system is called——?

A. System software

B. Operating system (Answer)

C. Utility program

D. Device driver


What type of operating system MS-DOS is?

A. Command Line Interface (Answer)

B. Graphical User Interface

C. Multitasking

D. Menu Driven Interface


Which technology is used in compact disks?

A. Mechanical

B. Electrical

C. Electro Magnetic

D. Laser (Answer)


1 Gigabyte is equal to ——?

A. 1024 bits

B. 1000 megabytes

C. 1024 kilobytes

D. 1024 megabytes (Answer)


The brain of any computer system is——?

A. ALU

B. Memory

C. CPU (Answer)

D. Control unit


Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ?

A. Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse

B. Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit (Answer)

C. Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits

D. Control Unit, Monitor


Analog computer works on the supply of ——? A.Continuous electrical pulses (Answer) B.Electrical pulses but not continuous C.Magnetic strength


which one is Digital device, select from the choices below?

A.Digital Clock (Answer)

B.Automobile speed meter

C.Clock with a dial and two hands

D.All of them


The computer that process both analog and digital is called——?

A.Analog computer

B.Digital computer

C.Hybrid computer (Answer)

D.Mainframe computer


CD-ROM stands for——?

A. Compactable Read Only Memory

B. Compact Data Read Only Memory

C. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory

D. Compact Disk Read Only Memory (Answer)


ALU is——?

A. Arithmetic Logic Unit (Answer)

B. Array Logic Unit

C. Application Logic Unit

D. None of above


VGA is——?

A. Video Graphics Array (Answer)

B. Visual Graphics Array

C. Volatile Graphics Array

D. Video Graphics Adapter


MSI stands for——?

A. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits (Answer)

B. Medium System Integrated Circuits

C. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit

D. Medium System Intelligent Circuit


WAN stands for——-?

A. Wap Area Network

B. Wide Area Network (Answer)


What is the main difference between a mainframe and a super computer?

A. Super computer is much larger than mainframe computers

B. Super computers are much smaller than mainframe computers

C. Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as possible while mainframe uses its power to execute as many programs concurrently (Answer)

D. Supercomputers are focused to execute as many programs as possible while mainframe uses its power to execute few programs as fast as possible.


—– is called the father of modern digital computer?

A. Leibnitz

B. Blaise Pascal

C. Charles Babbage (Answer)

D. J.H Muller


Who is the father of Computer science?

A. Allen Turing (Answer)

B. Charles Babbage

C. Simur Cray

D. Augusta Adaming


A CPU contains——?

A. a card reader and a printing device

B. an analytical engine and a control unit

C. a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit (Answer)

D. an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader


Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the operating system?

A. User interface (Answer)

B. Language translator

C. Platform

D. Screen saver


The first computers were programmed using——?

A. Assembly language

B. Machine language (Answer)

C. Source code

D. Object code


Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called—–?

A. Entry codes

B. Passwords (Answer)

C. Security commands

D. Code words


Which of the following statements is true about Minicomputer and Microcomputer?

A. Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer (Answer)

B. Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer

C. Speed of both the computers is the same

D. The speeds of both these computers cannot be compared with the speed of advanced


You can organize files by storing them in—–?

A. archives

B. folders (Answer)

C. indexes D. lists


What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer Network?

A. Printers (Answer)

B. Speakers

C. Floppy disk drives

D. Keyboards


Which device is required for the Internet connection?

A. Joystick

B. Modem (Answer)

C. CD Drive

D. NIC Card


What is a light pen?

A. A Mechanical Input device

B. Optical input device (Answer)

C. Electronic input device

D. Optical output device


UNIVAC is——?

A. Universal Automatic Computer (Answer)


The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk was—–?

A. 1.40 MB

B. 1.44 GB

C. 1.40 GB

D. 1.44 MB (Answer)


MICR stands for—–?

A. Magnetic Ink Character Reader (Answer)

B. Magnetic Ink Code Reader

C. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader

D. None


EBCDIC stands for—–?

A. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (Answer)

B. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code

C. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code

D. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code


Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?

A. Printer

B. Key board

C. Mouse

D. Arithmetic & Logic unit (Answer)


CAD stands for—–?

A. Computer aided design (Answer)

B. Computer algorithm for design

C. Computer application in design

D. Computer analogue design


Junk e-mail is also called—–?

A. spam (Answer)

B. spoof

C. sniffer script

D. spool


which statement describe “Hackers”?

A. all have the same motive

B. break into other people’s computers (Answer)


What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system?

A. Mainframe

B. Mini-computer

C. Microcomputer (Answer)

D. PDA


A computer cannot ‘boot’ if it does not have the—–?

A. Compiler

B. Loader

C. Operating System (Answer)

D. Assembler


The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a document is called——?

A. double-space

B. line spacing (Answer)

C. single space

D. vertical spacing


Example of non-numeric data is—–?

A. Employee address (Answer)

B. Examination score

C. Bank balance

D. All of these


—–represents raw facts, where-as—–is data made meaningful?

A. Information, reporting

B. Data, information (Answer)

C. Information, bits

D. Records, bytes


What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful?

A. ROM information can be easily updated.

B. Data in ROM is non-volatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power. (Answer)

C. ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.

D. ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers.


What do you call the programs that are used to find out possible faults and their causes?

A. operating system extensions

B. cookies

C. diagnostic software (Answer)

D. boot diskettes


Which programming languages are classified as low level languages?

A. BASIC, COBOL, Fortran

B. Prolog

C. C, C++

D. Assembly languages (Answer)


Which of the following is not anti- viruses software?

A. Avira

B. Kaspersky

C. Oracle (Answer)

D. McAfee


What does DMA stand for?

A. Distinct Memory Access

B. Direct Memory Access (Answer)

C. Direct Module Access

D. Direct Memory Allocation


What is embedded system?

A. The programme which arrives by being wrapped in box.

B. The programme which is the permanent part of the computer

C. The computer which is the part of a larger system or machine (Answer)

D. The computer and software system that control the machine


First page of Website is termed as—–?

A. Homepage (Answer)

B. Index

C. JAVA script

D. Bookmark


When a file is saved for the first time?

A. a copy is automatically printed

B. it must be given a name to identify it (Answer)

C. it does not need a name

D. it only needs a name if it is not going to be printed


Full form of “OS” is?
a. Order of significance
b. Operating system
c. Open software
d. Optical Sensor
Answer = B


The ribbon is used in ?
a. Laser Printer
b. Plotter
c. Inkjet
printer
d. Dot Matrix printer
Answer = D


Address book contains?
a. Email address
b. Phone numbers
c. People Names
d. All of the above
Answer = D


Full form of “DOCOMO” ?
a. Do Connect over Mobile
b. Do Communications Over the Mobile network
c. Dongle Communication Over Mobile
d. Do Communication Or More
Answer =B


Joystick is used to ?
a. Move cursor on the screen
b. Computer games
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

Answer = C


A DNS translates a domain name into what ?
a. Binary
b. Hex
c. IP
d. URL
Answer = C


When was the first email
sent ?
a. 1963
b. 1969
c. 1971
d. 1974
Answer = C


What type of memory is volatile ?
a. Cache
b. RAM
c. ROM
d. Hard Drive
Answer =B


Which of the below is not an iPhone 4 feature ?
a. 4G
b. Front facing camera
c. HD recording
d. Multitasking
Answer = A


Main memory is also known as ?
a. Auxiliary memory
b. Primery memory
c. Secondry memory
d. None of above
Answer = B


 

A presentation means ?
a. Display of products
b. Explaining the utility of products
c. A gift
d. Display of communication or skills
Answer = B


The term CRM means ?
a. Customer Relationship Management
b. Customer Retention Manager
c. Customer’s Relative Meet
d. Channel Root Market
Answer = A


Why would a switch be used in a network in preference to a HUB ?
a. To reduce the network traffic
b. To prevent the spread of all viruses
c. To connect a computer directly to the internet
d. To manage password security at the work station
Answer = A


What should be done to successfully convert the format of an image from BMP
to JPEG ?
a. Compress the file
b. Rename the image
c. Use the save as command
d. Change the image file extension
Answer =C


A company regularly updates a user reference guide. Some staff are confused
about which of the printed document is the most current. What feature should be
included in the reference guide to eliminate this confusion ?
a. Data printed
b. Version number
c. Authors name
d. Copyright information
Answer = B


The term associated with the processing of comparison speed is ?
a. FFTS
b. MPG
c. MIPS
d. CPS
Answer =C


The data from a spreadsheet needs to be imported into a database package.
Which file format would be the most appropriate when saving the spreadsheet file
?
a. CSV
b. HTML
c. PDF
d. RTF
Answer =A


For reproducing sound the CD audio player uses a ?
a. Quartz Cristal
b. Titanium Needle
c. Laser Beam
d. Barium Titanium Ceramic
Answer =C


Which of the following would indicate that the motherboard battery has failed ?
a. Operating system passwords are lost
b. Files on the hard disk are lost and corrupted
c. Hardware settings, including virtual memory reverts to default values
d. Hardware settings, including the current date and time reverts to default values
Answer = D


Which of the following is essential component of communication cycle ?
a. A message
b. An interpreter
c. An email account
d. An internet connection

Answer =A


 

Which country created the most used networking software in 1980’s ?
a. Sun
b. IBM
c. Novell
d. Microsoft
Answer =C


In what year was the @ chosen for its use in email address ?
a. 1972
b. 1976
c. 1980
d. 1984
Answer =A


Which American computer company is called Big Blue ?
a. IBM
b. Compaq Corp
c. Microsoft
d. Tandy Svenson
Answer = A


Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to control patterns in a
waving machine ?
a. Pascal
b. Hollerith
c. Babbage
d. Jacquard
Answer =D


What does SSL stands for ?
a. System socket layer
b. Secure system login
c. Secure socket layer
d. Secure system login
Answer =C


What is MAC ?
a. A computer made by Apple
b. Memory address corruption
c. Mediocre Apple Computer
d. Media Access Control
Answer =D


What does PPTP stand for ?
a. Point to Point Transmission Protocol
b. Point to Point Transfer Protocol
c. Point to Point Tunneling Protocol
d. Point to Point Traffic Protocol
Answer = C


The IBM PCXT
was the first to include a hard drive. What was the capacity of
this disk ?
a. 750 KB
b. 10 KB
c. 20 KB
d. 1.44 KB
Answer =B


In 1983, which person was the first to offer a definition of the term ‘computer virus’ ?

a. Smith
b. Cohen
c. Norton
d. Mcafee
Answer = B


DTP computer abbreviation usually means ?
a. DeskTop Publishing
b. Data Type Programming
c. Digital Transmission Protocol
d. None Of above
Answer = B


Which country created the most used networking software in 1980’s ?
a. Sun
b. IBM
c. Novell
d. Microsoft
Answer =C


In what year was the @ chosen for its use in email address ?
a. 1972
b. 1976
c. 1980
d. 1984
Answer =A


Which American computer company is called Big Blue ?
a. IBM
b. Compaq Corp
c. Microsoft
d. Tandy Svenson
Answer = A


Who is credited with the idea of using punch cards to control patterns in a
waving machine ?
a. Pascal
b. Hollerith
c. Babbage
d. Jacquard
Answer =D


What does SSL stands for ?
a. System socket layer
b. Secure system login
c. Secure socket layer
d. Secure system login
Answer =C


What is MAC ?
a. A computer made by Apple
b. Memory address corruption
c. Mediocre Apple Computer
d. Media Access Control

Answer =D


What does PPTP stand for ?
a. Point to Point Transmission Protocol
b. Point to Point Transfer Protocol
c. Point to Point Tunneling Protocol
d. Point to Point Traffic Protocol
Answer = C


The IBM PCXT
was the first to include a hard drive. What was the capacity of
this disk ?
a. 750 KB
b. 10 KB
c. 20 KB
d. 1.44 KB
Answer =B


In 1983, which person was the first to offer a definition of the term ‘computer
virus’ ?
a. Smith
b. Cohen
c. Norton
d. Mcafee
Answer = B


DTP computer abbreviation usually means ?
a. DeskTop Publishing
b. Data Type Programming
c. Digital Transmission Protocol
d. None Of above
Answer = B


JOURNALISM MCQs

“Tehzeeb ul Akhlaq” was started by______.

Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.
Maulana Zafar Ali Khan
Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar


“Tehzeeb ul Akhlaq” was started on _______
December 24,1860
December 24,1870
December 24,1880


The Comrade was an English Weekly which started in ______
January 1909
January 1911
January 1913


The Comrade was started by _________
Molana Muhammad Ali Johar
Molana Zafar Ali Khan
Molana Hasrat Mohani


Urdu-i-Mualla was started by __________
Molana Hasrat Mohani
Molana Zafar Ali Khan
Molana Muhammad Ali Johar


Urdu-i-Mualla was started in ____
1901
1903
1905


Jan-i-JehanNuma was published from Calcutta in _______
1912
1922
1932


“Akhbar-e-Aam” was started on ____
Jan 1, 1861
Jan 1, 1871
Jan 1, 1881


Paisa Akhbar was published by ________
Munshi Mehboob Alam
Muhammad Zafar Ali Khan
Muhammad Ali Johar


In______ Molana Muhammad Ali Baqar published “Delhi Urdu Akhbar”
1826
1836
1846


In _______ Munshi Mehboob Alam issued “Paisa Akhbar”
1867
1877
1887


The Ehsan was issued from______
Lahore
Karachi
Multan


Asr-e-jadid was started from____
Delhi
Calcutta
Lahore


Al waheed was issued from_____
Karachi
Lahore
Multan


Al waheed was started in ________
1910
1920
1930


Muslim Outlook was issued from
Lahore
Delhi
Multan


Muslim Outlook was started in ____
1912
1922
1932


Manshoor was issued from
Lahore
Delhi
Multan


Ain-e-Sikandari was published from Calcutta in ________ under the super vision of Mirza Ghalib
1821
1831
1841


 

Akhbar Scientific Society was published on ____ from Aligarh
March 3,1866
March 3, 1876
March 3, 1886


Molana Zafar Ali’s Father Molvi Saraj-ud-Din published a Zamindar in _____from Lahore
1903
1905
1907


Molana Zafar Ali shifted Zamindar office to Lahore in ______
1909
1911
1913


Hamdard was published on _______
Feb 23 , 1913
Feb 23, 1916
Feb 23 ,1917


Inquilaab appeared on _______
April 14, 1917
April 14, 1927
April 14, 1937


Jang was the first to starts its publication from _______
Karachi
Lahore
Delhi


Jang started its publication in
1938
1940
1942


Nawa-i-waqt was published on _____
March 23, 1940
March 23, 1942
March 23, 1944


Dawn begin its publication from Delhi in
1940
1942
1944


Molana Asad issued Al Hilal in
July 1910
July 1912
July 1914


 

Molana Asad Started Al Balagh in _____________
1905
1912
1915


Akhbar Scientific Society was published on _________
March 3, 1856
March 3, 1866
March 3, 1876


Daily Mashriq started on ___
Sept 16, 1953
Sept 16, 1963
Sept 16, 1973


Daily Khabrain was started on ______
Sept 26, 1990
Sept 26, 1992
Sept 26, 1994


Daily masawat started in
1960
1970
1980


The Nation started on
1st oct, 1984
1st oct, 1986
1st oct, 1988


The news started on
Feb 1 , 1989
Feb 1 , 1991
Feb 1 , 1993


Frontier Post started in________
Dec 1975
Dec 1985
Dec 1999


Manshoor was issued from____
Delhi
Lahore
Multan


Manshoor was issued from Delhi in__________
1928
1938
1948


 

In subcontinent newspapers and periodicals third place was occupied by _______
Bengali
Urdu
English


Which missionaries established first pages in the continent?
English missionaries
Dutch missionaries
Portuguese missionaries


How many newspapers appeared in the Subcontinent from 1801 to 1857___
306
406
506


The Begal Gazette was lauched in ____
1812
1816
1818


The first Indian owned newspaper was?
Koh i noor
The Begal Gazette
Delhi Akhbar


The first Urdu newspaper in Pakistan was_______
The Bengal gazette
Jan-i-Jehan Numa
Koh-i-Noor


The first Newspaper was ___
Koh-i-Noor
Jan-i-Jehan Numa
Delhi Akbar


Samachar Darpan appeared on
May 23, 1908
May 23, 1918
May 23, 1928


The first missionary newspaper in 19th century was_______
Dig Durshan
Samachar Darpan
Delhi Akhbar


The Bombay Herald appeard in ______
1779
1789
1799


The first Weekly from Madras was
Koh-i-Noor
The Friend of India
Madras Courier


 

The second newspaper from Calcutta was
Madras courier
Calcutta Courier
The India Gazette


The Hickey Gazette was published by
James Boyd
James Allen
James Augustus Hickey


Who was the first to disseminate news?
Mr.Allen
James Augustus Hickey
Julius Caesar


Hickey Gazette appeared on
Jan 29, 1770
Jan 29, 1780
Jan 29, 1790


Which Muslim ruler introduced Newsletters in India?
Mughals
Ghurida
Ghaznavide


During which Mughal Ruler the system of newspaper was at its peak?
Akbar ruler
Aurangzeb ruler
Babar Ruler


Who developed printing with moveable type?
Johann Gutenberg
James Boyd
James Sussenden


Which country invented Printing Press First_____
China
U.S.A
Japan


A printing press was established in Madras in ____
1762
1772
1782


 

The first Printing Press was established in Bombay by the British in ______
1764
1774
1784


The first specimen of a Persian print appeared in
1864
1874
1884


The Worlds first newspaper was published in China with the name of
Te Pau
News Book
Daily Currant


The earliest newspaper from Karachi was ____
Karachi Akhbar
Kurrachee Advertiser
Sindh Kossid


The Friend of India , a Weekly journal from Seerampore was issued on
Oct 9,1835
Oct 9,1845
Oct 9,1855


The eariliest Newspaper of Lahore was
Lahore Chronicle
The Pak times
The punjabi Newspaper


The Civil and Millitary Gazette appeared on
1867
1877
1887


Indian Public Opinion appeared on
Nov 16, 1856
Nov 16, 1866
Nov 16, 1876


The Punjabee an English Weekly was issued on
Feb 23, 1847
Feb 23, 1857
Feb 23, 1867


The Darya-i-Now was published in
1840
1850
1860


 

Shamla Akhbar was published in
1837
1847
1857


Mirat ul Akhbar was published in
1812
1822
1832


Sadiq ul Akhbar was started from
Delhi
Lahore
Bombay


Karim ul Akhbar was published in
1835
1845
1855


Daily Imroz was published from____
Lahore 
Karachi
Quetta


The earliest newspaper from Karachi was
Sindh Advertiser
Kurrachee Advertiser
Sindhian


The Bombay Times was edited by______
Dr. Buist
Mr.Arnold
Mr James


The Friend of India , a Weekly Journal from Seerampore was issued on
Oct 9, 1935
Oct 9, 1945
Oct 9, 1955


The earliest newspaper from Lahore was
Lahore chronicle
Lahore Advertiser
The Pakistan Times


The proprieter of Lahore chronicle was
Faiz Ahmed Faiz
Hameed Nizami
Muhammad Azim


 

The first editor of Lahore chronicles was
M.Henry Cope
Dr. Buist
James Augustus


Indian Public Opinion appeared on
Nov 16 , 1856
Nov 16 , 1866
Nov 16 , 1876


The Punjabee an English Weekly was Published on
Feb 23, 1847
Feb 23, 1857
Feb 23, 1867


The Punjabee was published by
Siraj-ud-Din
Muhammad Ali Johar
Syed Muhammad Azim


In 1861, the only English newspaper published from Karachi was
Our paper
Kurrachee Advertiser
Sindh Kossid


The first paper from Balochistan was
The Quetta Gazette 
The Quetta News
The Quetta Paper


The first English newspaper appeared from Dhaka in 1850 was
The Dacca News
The Dacca Paper
The Dacca Gazette


The first editor of The Pakistan Times was
Faiz Ahmed Faiz
Mian iftikhar-ud-Din
Mazhar Ali Khan


The first Editor of Dawn was
Mr. Altaf Hussain
Pothan Joseph
Faiz Ahmed Faiz


Daily Muslim was started from Islamabad in
1969
1979
1989


 

The first Editor of Daily was ______
Pothan Joseph
Faiz Ahmed Faiz
Mr,A.T. Chaudhry


The Frontier Post was launched from
Karachi
Lahore
Peshawar


Daily Frontier Post was issued on ________
March 23 , 1986
March 23 , 1988
March 23 , 1992


The Nation is owned by
Nawa-i-Waqt publication
The Jang Group
The Progressive Papers


The News is Owned by______
The Jang Group
The Progressive Papers
Nawa-i-Waqt Publication


The first Urdu newspaper appeared from Lahore was________.
Lahore Gazette
Koh-i-Noor
Jan-i-Jehan


Koh-i-Noor was founded by
Munshi Diwan Chund
Munshi Mahboob Alam
Munshi harsuk Rai


The first editor of Koh-i-Noor was
Suraj Bhan
Arnold
Dr.Buist


The Lahore Gazette as Urdu Weekly started in
1845
1855
1865


The first newspaper published from sialkot was
Faiz ul Akhbar
Riaz Ul Akhbar
Riaz -i- Noor


 

GOOD GOVERNANCE

“Gender equality is more than a goal in itself. It is a precondition for  meeting the challenge of reducing poverty, promoting sustainable development and building good governance”.
-Kofi Annan

Good governance has been said at various times to encompass: full respect of human rights, the rule of law, effective participation, multi-actor partnerships, political pluralism, transparent processes and institutions, an efficient and effective public sector , legitimacy , access to knowledge, information and education , political empowerment of people, equity , sustainability, attitude and values that foster responsibility, solidarity and tolerance.

Good governance relates to political and institutional processes and outcomes that are deemed necessary to achieve the goals of development. It has been said that good governance is the process whereby public institutions conduct public affairs, manage public resources and guarantee the realization of human rights in a manner essentially free of abuse and corruption, and with due regard
for the rule of law. The true test of “good” governance is the degree to which it delivers on the promise of human rights: civil, cultural, economic, political and social rights. The key question is: are the institutions of governance effectively guaranteeing the right to health, adequate housing, sufficient food, quality education, fair justice and personal security?

The concept of good governance has been clarified by the work of the former Commission on Human Rights. In its resolution 2000/64, the Commission identified the key attributes of good governance:

Transparency, responsibility, accountability , participation & responsiveness (to the needs of the people).

By linking good governance to sustainable human development, emphasizing principles such as accountability, participation and the enjoyment of human rights, and rejecting prescriptive approaches to development assistance, the resolution stands as an implicit endorsement of the rights-based approach to development. Resolution 2000/64 expressly linked good governance to an enabling
environment conducive to the enjoyment of human rights and “prompting growth and sustainable human development.” In underscoring the importance of development cooperation for securing go governance in countries in need of external support, the resolution recognized the value of partnership approaches to development cooperation and the inappropriateness of prescriptive approaches.

Good governance and human rights are mutually reinforcing. Human rights principles provide a set of values to guide the work of governments and other political and social actors. They also provide a set of performance standards against which these actors can be held accountable. Moreover, human rights principles inform the content of good governance efforts: they may inform the development of legislative frameworks, policies, programmes, budgetary allocations and other measures. On the other hand, without good governance, human rights cannot be respected and protected in a sustainable manner. The implementation of human rights relies on a conducive and enabling environment.

The links between good governance and human rights can be organized around four areas: When led by human rights values, good governance reforms of democratic institutions create avenues for the public to participate in policymaking either through formal institutions or informal consultations. They also establish mechanisms for the inclusion of multiple social groups in decision-
making processes, especially locally. Finally, they may encourage civil society and local communities to formulate and express there positions on issues of importance to them.

In the realm of delivering state services to the public, good governance reforms advance human rights when they improve the state’s capacity to fulfil its responsibility to provide public goods which are essential for the protection of a number of human rights, such as the right to education, health and food. Reform initiatives may include mechanisms of accountability and transparency, culturally
sensitive policy tools to ensure that services are accessible and acceptable to all, and paths for public participation in decision-making.

When it comes to the rule of law, human rights-sensitive good governance initiatives reform legislation and assist institutions ranging from penal systems to courts and parliaments to better implement that legislation. Good governance initiatives may include advocacy for legal reform, public awareness-raising on the national and international legal framework, and capacity-building or reform
of institutions.

In fighting corruption, good governance efforts rely on principles such as accountability, transparency and participation to shape anti-corruption measures. initiatives may include establishing institutions such as anti-corruption commissions, creating mechanisms of information sharing, and monitoring governments’ use of public funds and implementation of policies.

The interconnection between good governance, human rights and sustainable development has been made directly or indirectly by the international community in a number of declarations and other global conference documents. For example, the Declaration on the Right to Development proclaims that every human person and all peoples “are entitled to participate in, contribute to, and enjoy economic, social, cultural and political development” (article 1). In the Millennium Declaration, world leaders affirmed their commitment to promote democracy and strengthen the rule of law as well as to respect internationally recognized human rights and fundamental freedoms, including the right to development. According to the United Nations strategy document on the millennium development goals (MDGs), entitled “The United Nations and the MDGs: a Core Strategy”, “the MDGs have to be Situated within the broader norms and standards of the Millennium Declaration,” including those on “human rights, democracy and good governance”.

Since the draw of civilization man has been striving hard to manage his affairs systematically. ne desire to become systematic to the point and precise has led human being to develop variety of disciplines. These disciplines with the march of civilization failed to keep pace with the human driving force. Resultantly new avenues are sought for governance. In the case of Pakistan mismanagement has become a hallmark of our management. It is casting dark shadow on our institutional setup, our cultural norms and above all our credibility in the comity of nations.

Forced by the mismanagement, wide spread corruption and non-functioning of the national on different governments introduced a number of reforms to stem the decline. For this purpose, the Nawaz Sharif government initiated serious efforts. But with the unseating of this, government and military taking over, this pace appeals to have gathered pace. For better governance institutions were setup by the military, which are making plausible efforts to achieve their objectives.

Good governance may be defined as that kind of government that is citizen friendly. It has three major dimensions: Political, Economic and Civic.

In the political sense, governance may be defined as the will and the ability of the government to protect and promote the fundamental rights and liberties of the people. In economic sphere manner in which power is exercised in the management or a country’s economic and social resources for development. In its civil sense, the good civic government is that which allows the society to flourish. In a civil society the rights of an individual liberty, free speech, equal opportunities, education etc. are guaranteed by the law .Ina civil society collective sense of responsibility prevails.

As the crisis of governance deepens and public confidence in government institutions erodes there is an urgent need for reform to reinforce the linkages between the state and society. The reason for this sense of urgency and sense of depression are not far to seek. These may be enumerated following:
Good governance is needed for sustaining and maintaining a sound political system in country. In Pakistan, we can see that the failure of democracy is due to bad governance. Every government failure of democracy is due to bad governance. Every government comes with great slogans to serve the nation but once it gets charge, it forgets its promises of serving the people. Every P.M. includes in his cabinet the ministers of his own choice and grabs all the powers while managing the national affairs. The P.M. and his ministers become to self serving. In this way, they provide handle to the opposition to stir up the angered public opinion. The aim of the opposition is always to
bring down the government. When the situation gets totally out of control, it forces the Amy to intervene often cutting the lifetime of the government and democracy. All such actions lead to political instability. It seeks to underline the need of good governance which in turn would yield political stability in the country. Good governance is needed to make both the public and private sectors effective. A well governed country has also both these sectors well administered and in harmony with each other. When a country is not politically sound its institutions will also be in poor condition. Cohesion between these sectors is impossible in the absence of good governance. In our country, we can see due to the bad governance our public and private sectors are in a great mess.

Every institution of public sector is suffering from mal-administration and worst king of corruption. The people reluctantly visit these institutions because they know the truants and dishonest elements would not lend half an ear shoes palm is always itching. Even for public utilities task, people have to offer bribe. Without any favour or bribe it s very difficult to get any work done from the public offices. Moreover, due to the malpractices of the public officials and misappropriation of public funds the infrastructure of public institutions has become cracked and a situation like chaos is prevailing all over the country, So, good governance is strictly needed in order to make governmental machinery effective.

Whereas good governance is needed for the smooth running of public institutions, it is all essential for maintaining the sovereignty of the country. If a country is poorly governed and there is a political instability, its enemies find opportunities in this situation and try to undermine it. While badly governed country has many other problems to solve, it can not ensure its security. A good governed country is economically strong and all the departments of the country function smoothly enables the rulers to strengthen the country’s security.

In Pakistan, there have been repeated military interventions into political governance from to time. Although country has witnessed democratic regimes as well, but there has been constant experimentation with democracy in the last 50 years. That is shy no comprehensive system of governance could evolve. This poetical chaos started with the dissolution of first constituent assembly
in the most undemocratic and arbitrary manner by Governor General Ghulam Mohammad in 1954. Since then Pakistan’s internal strife has been plaguing including constitutional crises. He replaced Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din by Mohammad Ali Bogra, then foreign Ambassador of Pakistan in the United Grates. In the second cabinet of Mohammad Ali Bogra, Mohammad Ayub Khan, then C-in-C, was
included. It paved the way for military martial law in 1958.

The first Martial Law was imposed by Ayub Khan in 1958 and lasted till 1969. He abrogated the constitution of 1965. He introduced Presidential system with indirect elections. His era was known ac Decade of Development” which later on proved to be “Decade of Exploitation” as his policy of privatization widened the gap between “haves” and “have nots”. The national wealth was concentrated
privatization widened into the Ayub also created resentment among the students.

In April 1969, General Yahya assumed lasted control of the country and again Martial Law lasted till 1971. He abrogated the constitution of 1962, banned all political activates and dissolved National and Provincial Assemblies. Yahya’s Military regime in the history of Pakistan was void of development because there was no improvement or progress in any sphere of life. Rather there was a visible decline in political, soC1al and economic spheres. Above all, the country was dismembered and the eastern wing broke away to emerge as an independent sovereign state of Bangladesh. His only aim was to transfer power to an elected body by holding free and fair elections. Yahya lived up to his promise of holding fair election which were held in 1970 but instead of paving the way of smooth transfer of power, the results of the election sowed the seeds of disintegration which eventually led to the formation of Bangladesh in 1971. The loss of East Pakistan in 1971 war and the dismemberment of the country ill-reputed the Pakistan Army. The army rule could not continue and Yahya had no alternative but to quit by handing over power to Z.A Bhutto.

Z.A Bhutto was the chairman of PPP, who secured majority in West Pakistan in election of 1970. Bhutto possessed a charismatic personality. He introduced the concept of “Islamic Socialism”.

According to him

“Islam is our faith. Democracy our policy, Socialism our economy and all power to the people”

He raised the slogan of providing basic necessities to the people like Roti, Kapra and Makan. His economic policy was totally different. In 1972, he undertook a massive “nationalization programme in which he nationalized all those industries set up in the private sector. In first phase, 31 units were nationalized which fell under 10 categories. They were iron and steel Industries, basic metals, heavy engineering etc. In second phase, he undertook second phase of nationalization which people were not expecting. It created great panic among the industrialist, as they were not expecting the nationalization was not an extensive exercise and could not arrest inflation effectively as it was planned to do so. The PPP government public enterprises were controlled by BIM.

The land reforms introduced by Bhutto also could not yield the desired results as landlords anticipated such reforms in advance and transferred surplus land in names of their other family member, relatives or even made lease-back arrangement with tenants. However, his labour reforms in 1972-73 enhanced the prestige and status of labour class and safeguarded their rights effectively. He
was the only head who was allowed to enjoy his tenure properly from 1970-1977.

Again Martial Law intervened in 1977 and the so-called popular leader elected by common people through dubious elections was hanged. Whatever the circumstances were, the step was unconstitutional. Zia’s Martial Regime was supposed to be the shortest ne but it turned out to be the longest in the history of Pakistan. Zia did not abrogate the constitution of 1973 but suspended. At that point of time, a strong Pakistan from military point of view was needed because of Afghan problem and the revolution of Iran. Both of then could have their repercussions beyond their boundaries. Zia’s regime opened the gates of foreign aid in Pakistan as country was going through adverse economic crises.

Besides, Zia undertook massive Islamic programme in order to seek legitimacy of his prolonged rule. He issued various ordinances to bring existing laws in line with principles of Quran and Sunnah. He decided to promulgate 1973 Constitution with necessary amendments. He passed his famous 8 amendment curtailing the power of head of government through article 58 2(b) and provided
significant power to the president who could dissolve National Assembly whenever he thinks that need has arisen.

He held local elections in 1983 on non-party basis. Then he held referendum in 1984 and main aim was to seek public mandate for Zia’s various steps, which he had already taken since 1977. In January 1985, he helä general elections which were also on non-party basis. It became difficult to choose P.M and C.M from elected assemblies.

Handpicked civilian Govt. of Mohammad Ali Khan Junejo was placed in but it found it very difficult to work while country was still under Martial Law Regime. The Government of Junejo was fired in 1988 through the special power enjoyed by Zia because of 8th Amendment. The government was dismissed on the plea of Ojhri Camp disaster. Corruption charges were leveled against it and also due to the early signing of the Geneva Accord by Junejo without the consent of President Zia. Holding of Round Table Conference by Junejo also annoyed Zia in which various political parties were invited. On 18 August 1988, President Zia’s airplane C-130 crashed near Bahawalpur. He died along with top brass military generals on the spot. Thus another military civilian regime ended in a tragic manner.

The General elections were held in 1988 on party basis by the president Ghulam Ishaq Khan. Many ethnic, political and regional parties participated in these general elections. The PPP bagged 93 seats followed by Islami Jamhoori ittehad claiming over 60 seats in National Assembly. As a result, Benazir became PM of Pakistan on 1 December 1988. The government was dissolved in 1990 due to
the corruption charges leveled against her by president of that time.

Then next elections were held in October 1990 and this time Islami Jamhoori ittehad got majority and hence Nawaz Sharif became PM. This government was also dismissed in 1993 by Ghulam Ishaq Khan on plea of corruption, nepotism and ethnic strife.

Again elections were held in 1993 and Benazir became PM but this government was also dissolved on corruption charges in 1996.

Election were again held on 2 February 1997, and Nawaz Sharif came into power. The results were amazing for everyone. The PML (N) made clean sweep in the elections and got a wide majority. But in 1999, a military coup took place led by General Musharraf. The Army was yet again in power promising again of smooth transfer of power to grass root level within 3 years.

Following are the causes of poor governance.
Although accountability is the keynote of Islamic character yet it is not only emitted in the constitution of Pakistan but also not found even in the character of the rulers, this is a word unknown to the rulers of Pakistan, unless accountability is introduced with all the seriousness. The process of accountability not only be swift and sure but also transparent. that it demands, the ills and curses
inflicting the country will continue to inflict. Accountability should be irrespective of personalities.

Secondly, absence of rule of law leads to bad governance. In Pakistan, no law is applicable to the feudal lords. While the definition of rule of law means that every one is equal in front of the law. There are many cases of corruption against the politicians but no case has been pursued against the politicians due to not independence of judiciary. The cases of Hajj Scam, Steel Mill, Mehran Bank case and others are still pending or their punishment 1s not given as per the law. Since independence of Pakistan, no general, bureaucrat, politician, minister was held accountable or any case was filed against them.

Incompetent politicians have also adversely affected the governance system in Pakistan. The basic problem is with politics. This is both systemic and generic. Systemic in the sense that our political system is not designed to perform the type of functions it is entrusted with. Generic in the sense that the political apparatus (Parliament, the government or the cabinet) designed for performing certain functions, essentially the sovereign functions does not have the capacity to discharge the duties assigned to them. There is a sharp difference between our political culture and governance. In some cases it does but in many it does not. Merit, social justice, transparency, good governance, effective economics and enterprise management do not find a place anywhere in our politics. Politicians have a one-point agenda to attain power and that too, not for the purpose for which they are elected, but for their narrower and even personal agenda.

Undoubtedly, in Pakistan, corruption is a significant obstacle for good governance, supremacy of law, and rational use of authority to run the affairs of state and to maintain public cohesion and national harmony. Unfortunately, corrupt practices and misuse of public office lead to general frustration, opening windows of protest with sense of dissent, disapproval and conflict against the governing authority. The environment of agitation and demonstrations carry seeds of large scale disturbances, creating law and order situation, social disorder and political chaos, culminatıng in poor governance. In a real democratic system, hence, wise rulers undertake tangible measures to fight corruption with a view to improve governance and maintain order. It is our misfortune that rampant
corruption in the country has infected the entire edifice of national institutions, while the rule of law appears to have been totally disregarded. Consequently few parasites devouringly consume best of resources, while the poor majority remains repressed and victimized under hard economic conditions.

Since the establishment of Pakistan Amy has always had a strong desire to have a permanent place in the political setup of country. The 4 military regimes are the proof of this. Pakistan’s history is studded with coups and coup like actions that have affected the character of the civilian governments and their working.

It’s quite clear that four governments before the Ayub Regime and all the governments after Zia were dismissed because they were guilty of corruption, mal administration, nepotism, and ethnic strife.

All the Governments after Junejo were characterized by the royal style of the Prime Minister that was true in case of Benazir and Nawaz Sharif because of their extravagant style of living i.e. Raiwind Palaces and Surrey Palace respectively.

All the previous heads of governments both civilian and military and also the politicians they exercised absolutism in style and mentality. They did not realize that their foremost duty was to serve the people not just to misrule them. Politicians during the last 64 years have not exhibited responsible attitude.

Our constitution does not provide an effective system of check and balance. That is why, when a civilian government is elected, it becomes omnipotent i.e. all powerful which gives rise to corruption and mal-administration. There is no effective system of governance which can keep check on the decisions and the steps taken by PM and his cabinet. Judiciary must be made strong enough to keep a
check over the legislation by the government.

In Pakistan except Bhutto’s government, no government has completed its expected life span. After Junejo, many governments were disbanded in the period of 9 years. This game of power musical chair has seriously affected the economic and social progress of our country.

The political chaos prevailing in the country has led to grave economic condition. Now our country 1s on the verge of bankruptcy for some years. A feeling of hopelessness is going on. Increasing unemployment has led to “brain drain” which is alarming for the very survival of our dear homeland. This continuously deteriorating economic situation is detrimental to effective results
oriented governance.

People are also responsible for their misfortunes because they have not exerted themselves. They have failed to participate in the affairs of the state. They have allowed governments to misgovern and mismanage the economy.

In Pakistan, bureaucrats have also tried to gain political power. The examples of bureaucrats turned politicians are present here. These bureaucrats exercise undue influence and make politicians dance on their tunes. They have done enormous changes to the previous government setups by giving rise to red tapes.

Political parties have not done their job properly of inculcating political awareness among the masses. Most of the times they have failed to mobilize public opinion. Instead of securing confidence of the people, they introduced horse trading which has shattered the confidence of people in politicians and political parties. Moreover, political parties led to extreme political polarization in the society which affected the law and order situation in the country. Karachi provides the best example.

With the poor governance in three sectors, economic, political and institutional, the country, despite having huge natural resources, has now entered into stagflation, which is the worst-ever scenario. Thrust, intolerance and corruption have plagued the politics of Pakistan. Having failed to address any of these issues the government has lost its credibility and trust at home. The government is also using institutions for its personal benefits, which is causing a clash among the institutions. Investment is rapidly flying from Pakistan due to unfavorable economic environment in the country. Energy crisis is negatively affecting the industry and a number of industries have been closed down due to unavailability of gas and electricity. These examples show bad governance in Pakistan as our planning machinery and policy makers are totally failed to overcome these crisis.

Good governance is the significant issue of sustainable economic development amongst other factors. It is the instrument of political, economic and administrative authorities to manage nation’s affairs. However, governance in Pakistan is almost in a state of collapse. The effects of poor governance have compounded the economic causes of rising poverty such as decline in GDP growth rate, increasing indebtedness, inflation, falling public investment and poor state of physical infrastructure. Pakistan is today faced with a multitude of crises ranging from energy shortages to breakdown of law and order to violence and terror, creating a sense of insecurity and
frustration that is eating into the vitals of the nation’s identity and dignity, the root cause being the lack of good governance. It is only good governance which creates a good environment for investment, including investment in people, and leads to higher income, reduces poverty, and provides better social indicators.

The performance of bureaucracy at various tiers of the government is ineffective and inefficient mainly on account of inappropriate and whimsical appointments, postings and promotions. This of affairs needs to take immediate corrective measures to restore the confidence of civil servants to ensure that they work with complete commitment and to the best of their abilities. This will require elimination of the dead wood, de-politicization of services and encouraging the qualified and the competent. At the same time, social factors such as the highly unequal distribution of land, low level of human development, and persistent ethnic and sectarian conflicts are also obstacles to the achievement of long term sustained development.

There is no effective system of drafting legislation, making budget appropriations, holding hearings with experts, and subsequent oversight by specialized parliamentary committees. People who chair such committees don’t have much of a clue as to where to begin, what questions to ask, and how to hold the executive and the bureaucracy accountable. As a result, once the laws and policies are
approved, and budgets passed, there is not much oversight or accountability.

In order to attain quality of governance, the people should be represented from the grass root to the highest level throng their representatives. This democratic process should be fair to accommodate the aspirations of the man in the street throng effective governance. In order to attain quality of governance,

The people instead of the accountability of the previous or failed rulers, must ask for participation in decision making and in the execution of the policies evolved through a democratic consultative process.

In order to have an effect system of governance, participation of women should be ensured as according to the latest count men: women ratio is 48:52 respectively. The number of seats that are taken negligible; it’s almost non-existent at the moment.

Independence of judiciary must be maintained which can exercise an effective system of check and balance and can prevent politicians from abuse of power.

Economic and political stability are deeply interlinked. Without one, the other cannot be obtained. So government must evolve strait and requires a major re-structuring. Then continuity of policy is required without which no result would be obtained.

People must be educated without which they cannot protect their rights. Press can play a vital role in creating awareness among people regarding their problems and their solutions. In this way, people would be able to demand their rights and will perform their duties in a more organized way. Thus, we can say without proper civic sense good and effective governance cannot be obtained.

This is high time that consensus must be developed among the people that what system of government can suit them better. Keeping in view the pluralistic society of Pakistan, federal system of government can serve people better but sufficient powers must be given to the provinces in order to tackle the problems of the people in an appropriate way. Direct system of election must be introduced and governments must be allowed to complete their tenure. The crucial importance of good governance can be witnessed by the experience of East Asian countries. Between 1965 and 1990, the region registered the highest growth rate in the world and combined it with high living standards. The Single most important factor in this economic miracle was the fact that these countries were able to put in place sound and sustainable framework.

BASIC COMPUTER AND MS OFFICE MCQs


The term ‘Computer’ is derived from—–?

A. Latin (Answer)

B. German

C. French

D. Arabic


Who is the father of Computer?

A. Allen Turing

B. Charles Babbage (Answer)

C. Simur Cray

D. Augusta


Adaming The basic operations performed by a computer are—–?

A. Arithmetic operation

B. Logical operation

C. Storage and relative

D. All the above (Answer)


Who is the father of Internet ?

A. Chares Babbage

B. Vint Cerf (Answer)

C. Denis Riche

D. Martin Cooper


If a computer has more than one processor then it is known as—–?

A. Uni-process

B. Multiprocessor (Answer)

C. Multi-threaded

D. Multi-programming


A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text or other images into digital form is——?

A. Keyboard

B. Scanner (Answer)

C. OMR

D. None of these


A collection of system programs that controls and co-ordinates the overall operations of a computer system is called——?

A. System software

B. Operating system (Answer)

C. Utility program

D. Device driver


What type of operating system MS-DOS is?

A. Command Line Interface (Answer)

B. Graphical User Interface

C. Multitasking

D. Menu Driven Interface


Which technology is used in compact disks?

A. Mechanical

B. Electrical

C. Electro Magnetic

D. Laser (Answer)


1 Gigabyte is equal to ——?

A. 1024 bits

B. 1000 megabytes

C. 1024 kilobytes

D. 1024 megabytes (Answer)


The brain of any computer system is——?

A. ALU

B. Memory

C. CPU (Answer)

D. Control unit


Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU) ?

A. Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse

B. Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit (Answer)

C. Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits

D. Control Unit, Monitor


Analog computer works on the supply of ——? A.Continuous electrical pulses (Answer) B.Electrical pulses but not continuous C.Magnetic strength


which one is Digital device, select from the choices below?

A.Digital Clock (Answer)

B.Automobile speed meter

C.Clock with a dial and two hands

D.All of them


The computer that process both analog and digital is called——?

A.Analog computer

B.Digital computer

C.Hybrid computer (Answer)

D.Mainframe computer


CD-ROM stands for——?

A. Compactable Read Only Memory

B. Compact Data Read Only Memory

C. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory

D. Compact Disk Read Only Memory (Answer)


ALU is——?

A. Arithmetic Logic Unit (Answer)

B. Array Logic Unit

C. Application Logic Unit

D. None of above


VGA is——?

A. Video Graphics Array (Answer)

B. Visual Graphics Array

C. Volatile Graphics Array

D. Video Graphics Adapter


MSI stands for——?

A. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits (Answer)

B. Medium System Integrated Circuits

C. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit

D. Medium System Intelligent Circuit


WAN stands for——-?

A. Wap Area Network

B. Wide Area Network (Answer)


What is the main difference between a mainframe and a super computer?

A. Super computer is much larger than mainframe computers

B. Super computers are much smaller than mainframe computers

C. Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as possible while mainframe uses its power to execute as many programs concurrently (Answer)

D. Supercomputers are focused to execute as many programs as possible while mainframe uses its power to execute few programs as fast as possible.


—– is called the father of modern digital computer?

A. Leibnitz

B. Blaise Pascal

C. Charles Babbage (Answer)

D. J.H Muller


Who is the father of Computer science?

A. Allen Turing (Answer)

B. Charles Babbage

C. Simur Cray

D. Augusta Adaming


A CPU contains——?

A. a card reader and a printing device

B. an analytical engine and a control unit

C. a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit (Answer)

D. an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader


Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the operating system?

A. User interface (Answer)

B. Language translator

C. Platform

D. Screen saver


The first computers were programmed using——?

A. Assembly language

B. Machine language (Answer)

C. Source code

D. Object code


Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system are called—–?

A. Entry codes

B. Passwords (Answer)

C. Security commands

D. Code words


Which of the following statements is true about Minicomputer and Microcomputer?

A. Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer (Answer)

B. Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer

C. Speed of both the computers is the same

D. The speeds of both these computers cannot be compared with the speed of advanced


You can organize files by storing them in—–?

A. archives

B. folders (Answer)

C. indexes D. lists


What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer Network?

A. Printers (Answer)

B. Speakers

C. Floppy disk drives

D. Keyboards


Which device is required for the Internet connection?

A. Joystick

B. Modem (Answer)

C. CD Drive

D. NIC Card


What is a light pen?

A. A Mechanical Input device

B. Optical input device (Answer)

C. Electronic input device

D. Optical output device


UNIVAC is——?

A. Universal Automatic Computer (Answer)


The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk was—–?

A. 1.40 MB

B. 1.44 GB

C. 1.40 GB

D. 1.44 MB (Answer)


MICR stands for—–?

A. Magnetic Ink Character Reader (Answer)

B. Magnetic Ink Code Reader

C. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader

D. None


EBCDIC stands for—–?

A. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (Answer)

B. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code

C. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code

D. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code


Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?

A. Printer

B. Key board

C. Mouse

D. Arithmetic & Logic unit (Answer)


CAD stands for—–?

A. Computer aided design (Answer)

B. Computer algorithm for design

C. Computer application in design

D. Computer analogue design


Junk e-mail is also called—–?

A. spam (Answer)

B. spoof

C. sniffer script

D. spool


which statement describe “Hackers”?

A. all have the same motive

B. break into other people’s computers (Answer)


What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in a client-server system?

A. Mainframe

B. Mini-computer

C. Microcomputer (Answer)

D. PDA


A computer cannot ‘boot’ if it does not have the—–?

A. Compiler

B. Loader

C. Operating System (Answer)

D. Assembler


The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a document is called——?

A. double-space

B. line spacing (Answer)

C. single space

D. vertical spacing


Example of non-numeric data is—–?

A. Employee address (Answer)

B. Examination score

C. Bank balance

D. All of these


—–represents raw facts, where-as—–is data made meaningful?

A. Information, reporting

B. Data, information (Answer)

C. Information, bits

D. Records, bytes


What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful?

A. ROM information can be easily updated.

B. Data in ROM is non-volatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power. (Answer)

C. ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.

D. ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers.


What do you call the programs that are used to find out possible faults and their causes?

A. operating system extensions

B. cookies

C. diagnostic software (Answer)

D. boot diskettes


Which programming languages are classified as low level languages?

A. BASIC, COBOL, Fortran

B. Prolog

C. C, C++

D. Assembly languages (Answer)


Which of the following is not anti- viruses software?

A. Avira

B. Kaspersky

C. Oracle (Answer)

D. McAfee


What does DMA stand for?

A. Distinct Memory Access

B. Direct Memory Access (Answer)

C. Direct Module Access

D. Direct Memory Allocation


What is embedded system?

A. The programme which arrives by being wrapped in box.

B. The programme which is the permanent part of the computer

C. The computer which is the part of a larger system or machine (Answer)

D. The computer and software system that control the machine


First page of Website is termed as—–?

A. Homepage (Answer)

B. Index

C. JAVA script

D. Bookmark


When a file is saved for the first time?

A. a copy is automatically printed

B. it must be given a name to identify it (Answer)

C. it does not need a name

D. it only needs a name if it is not going to be printed


 

BIOCHEMISTRY MCQs


Milk is deficient in which vitamins

(A)Vitamin C (Answer)

(B) Vitamin A

(C) Vitamin B2

(D) Vitamin K


HDL is synthesized and secreted from

(A) Pancreas

(B) Liver (Answer)

(C) Kidney

(D) Muscle


Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?

Nucleus(Answer)

(B) Mitochondria

(C) Cytoplasm

(D) Golgi apparatus


The most active site of protein synthesis is the

Nucleus

(B) Ribosome(Answer)

(C) Mitochondrion

(D) Cell sap


The fatty acids can be transported into and out of mitochondria through

(A) Active transport

(B) Facilitated transfer (Answer)

(C) Non-facilitated transfer

(D) None of these


Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?

(A) Lysosomes

(B) Mitochondria (Answer)

(C) Golgi apparatus

(D) Entoplasmic reticulum


Mitochondrial DNA is

(A) Circular double stranded(Answer)

(B) Circular single stranded

(C) Linear double helix

(D) None of these


The average pH of Urine is

(A) 0

(B) 6.0(Answer)

(C) 8.0

(D) 5.0


The ability of the cell membrane to act as a selective barrier depends upon

(A) The lipid composition of the membrane

(B) The pores which allows small molecules

(C) The special mediated transport systems

(D) All of these(Answer)


Carrier protein can

(A) Transport only one substance

(B) Transport more than one substance

(C) Exchange one substance to another

(D) Perform all of these functions (Answer)


 

The Golgi complex

(A) Synthesizes proteins

(B) Produces ATP

(C) Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals

(D) Forms glycoproteins (Answer)


Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by

(A) rRNA

(B) mRNA

(C) tRNA

(D) Polysomes(Answer)


The following substances are cell inclusions except

(A) Melanin

(B) Glycogen

(C) Lipids

(D) Centrosome(Answer)


The power house of the cell is

(A) Nucleus

(B) Cell membrane

(C) Mitochondria(Answer)

(D) Lysosomes


The digestive enzymes of cellular compounds are confined to

(A) Lysosomes (Answer)

(B) Ribosomes

(C) Peroxisomes

(D) Polysomes


The general formula of monosaccharides is

(A) CnH2nOn(Answer)

(B) C2nH2On

(C) CnH2O2n

(D) CnH2nO2n


The aldose sugar is

(A) Glycerose(Answer)

(B) Ribulose

(C) Erythrulose

(D) Dihydoxyacetone


One of the following is not double membranous structure

(A) Mitochondrion

(B) Vacuole (Answer)

(C) Chloroplast

(D) Nucleus


Modification of proteins and lipids as glycopeptides and lipo-proteins occur in

(A) Ribosomes

(B) Golgi apparatus(Answer)

(C) SER

(D) All A, B and C


Detoxification of harmful drugs is the function
(A) RER

(B) SER(Answer)

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above


 

Cell wall consist of

(A) One main layer

(B) Two main layers

(C) Three main layers (Answer)

(D) Four main layers


In which organelle following reaction takes place 6CO2 + 6 H2O + energy (from sunlight) ———> C6H12O6 + 6 O2

(A) Mitochondrion

(B) Peroxisome

(C) Chloroplast(Answer)

(D) Glyoxysome


SER is abundant in cells that are involved in

(A) Lipid metabolism(Answer)

(B) Protein metabolism

(C) Glucose metabolism

(D) Calcium metabolism


The door to your house is like the __________________ of a cell membrane?

(A) Phospholipid bilayer (Answer)

(B) Integral protein

(C) Recognition protein

(D) Peripheral protein


Within chloroplasts, light is captured by

(A) Grana within cisternae

(B) Thylakoids within grana(Answer)

(C) Cisternae within grana

(D) Grana within thylakoids


Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function?

(A) Mitochondrion . . . photosynthesis

(B) Nucleus . . . cellular respiration

(C) Ribosome . . . manufacture of lipids

(D) Central vacuole . . . storage(Answer)


The microfilaments composed of

(A) Actin protein(Answer)

(B) Gelatin protein

(C) Keratin protein

(D) Tubulin protein


Which of the following would you NOT find in a bacterial cell?

(A) DNA

(B) Cell membrane

(C) Golgi apparatus(Answer)

(D) Ribosomes


According to mosaic model by Singer and Nicholson plasma membrane is composed of

(A) Phospholipids

(B) Extrinsic proteins

(C) Intrinsic proteins

(D) All of these(Answer)


Basic solutions are also called as ____________.

(A) Proton

B) Doner

C) Alkaline(Answer)

D) Both a and b


 

Cell was for the first time discussed by __________________.

(A) Watson

b)  Schwann

C) Crick

D) none of these(Answer)


_______ to ________of the human body consists of water

(A) 40 to 60

B) 50 to 70

C) 65 to 75

D) 50 to 75(Answer)


It is recommended that teens drink ____ to ____ glasses of water each day.

(A) 2 to 4

B)  4 to 6

C) 6 to 8  (Answer)

D) 5 to 7


____________ of the earth’s surface is water.

(A) 70%

B)  65%

C) 75% (Answer)

D) 80%


Water is made up of hydrogen and oxygen molecules in the ratio ________.

(A) 1:2

B)  1:1

C) 2:1  (Answer)

D) none of these


An Acid is a substance which, when dissolved in water, releases___________.

(A) H+   (Answer)

B)  OH –

C) Alkaline

D) none of these


The hydrogen ion is called ___________.

(A) Electron

B) Bases

C) Proton(Answer)

D) Acids


A _______is a substance that releases OH-or hydroxyl ions when added to water.

(A) Acids

B) Bases (Answer)

C) Alkaline

D) Both b and c


Each pH unit represents a factor of _______ difference greater in [H+].

(A) 20 times

B) 10 times (Answer)

C) 30 times

D) none of these


___________ are used for the maintenance of pH.

(A) Buffer(Answer)

B) water

C) Hydrogen

D) Hydroxyl ions


 

If concentration of H+ is greater than 1 x 10-7 then solution is

(A) Neutral

B) basic (Answer)

C) acidic

D) aqueous


Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

(A) Isomaltose

(B) Maltose

(C) Lactose

(D) Trehalose (Answer)


Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

(A) Sucrose

(B) Trehalose

(C) Isomaltose(Answer)

(D) Agar


The sugar found in DNA is

(A) Xylose

(B) Ribose

(C) Deoxyribose(Answer)

(D) Ribulose


The sugar found in milk is

(A) Galactose

(B) Glucose

(C) Fructose

(D) Lactose(Answer)


Sucrose consists of

(A) Glucose + glucose

(B) Glucose + fructose(Answer)


The constituent unit of insulin is

(A) Glucose

(B) Fructose(Answer)

(C) Mannose

(D) Galactose


Starch is a

(A) Polysaccharide(Answer)

(B) Monosaccharide

(C) Disaccharide

(D) None of these


Worldwide, the most common vitamin deficiency is that of

(A) Ascorbic acid

(B) Folic acid (Answer)

(C) Vitamin A

(D) Vitamin D


Bence-Jones protein precipitates at

(A) 20°–40° C

(B) 40–-60° C (Answer)

(C) 60°–80° C

(D) 80°–100° C


 

All proteins contain the

(A) Same 20 amino acids(Answer)

(B) Different amino acids

(C) 300 Amino acids occurring in nature

(D) Only a few amino acids


The optically inactive amino acid is

(A) Glycine

(Answer)

(B) Serine

(C) Threonine

(D) Valine


The functions of plasma albumin are

(A) Osmosis(Answer)

(B) Transport

(C) Immunity

(D) both (A )and (B)


An essential amino acid in man is

(A) Aspartate

(B) Tyrosine

(C) Methionine (Answer)

(D) Serine


Non essential amino acids

(A) Are not components of tissue proteins

(B) May be synthesized in the body from essential amino acids (Answer)

(C) Have no role in the metabolism

(D) May be synthesized in the body in diseased states


Which one of the following is semiessential amino acid for humans?

(A) Valine

(B) Arginine(Answer)

(C) Lysine

(D) Tyrosine


An example of polar amino acid is

(A) Alanine

(B) Leucine

(C) Arginine(Answer)

(D) Valine


A ketogenic amino acid is

(A) Valine

(B) Cysteine

(C) Leucine(Answer)

(D) Threonine


After releasing O2 at the tissues, hemoglobin transports

(A) CO2 and protons to the lungs (Answer)

(B) O2 to the lungs

(C) CO2 and protons to the tissue

(D) Nutrients


The protein present in hair is

(A) Keratin(Answer)

(B) Elastin

(C) Myosin

(D) Tropocollagen


 

Net protein utilisation of egg protein is

(A) 75%

(B) 80%

(C) 91%(Answer)

(D) 72%


Net protein utilization of milk protein is

(A) 75%(Answer)

(B) 80%

(C) 86%

(D) 91%


Pulses are rich in

(A) Lysine (Answer)

(B) Methionine

(C) Tryptophan

(D) Phenylalanine


Milk is deficient in

(A) Vitamin B1

(B) Vitamin B2

(C) Sodium(Answer)

(D) Potassium


An example of a hydroxy fatty acid is

(A) Ricinoleic acid (Answer)

(B) Crotonic acid

(C) Butyric acid

(D) Oleic acid


An example of a saturated fatty acid is

(A) Palmitic acid (Answer)

(B) Oleic acid

(C) Linoleic acid

(D) Erucic acid


The number of double bonds in arachidonic acid is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 4(Answer)

(D) 6


Dietary fats after absorption appear in the circulation as

(A) HDL

(B) VLDL

(C) LDL

(D) Chylomicron(Answer)


The deficiency of both energy and protein causes

(A) Marasmus(Answer)

(B) Kwashiorkar

(C) Diabetes

(D) Beri-beri


Kwashiorkar is characterized by

(A) Night blindness

(B) Edema(Answer)

(C) Easy fracturability

(D) Xerophthalmia


 

1. Glucosomes helps in
a) Fat synthesis
b) Glucose synthesis✅
c) Starch
d) Carbohydrates


2. Myofibril helps in
a) Muscular contraction✅
b) Ligamentus contraction
c) Both a & b
d) None


3. Ribosomes helps in
a) Translation of RNA into protein✅
b) Translation of DNA into protein
c) Conversion of fats into acids
d) None


4. Peroxisomes
a) Breakdown of hydrogen peroxide✅
b) Formation of hydrogen peroxide
c) Breakdown of hydrogen dioxide
d) Formation of hydrogen dioxide


5. Glyoxysomes helps in
a) Conversion of sugar into fats
b) Conversion of fats into sugar✅
c) Conversion of acids into bases
d) Conversion of bases into acids


6. Carboxysomes helps in
a) Carbon fixation✅
b) Oxygen fixation
c) Carbon monoxide fixation
d) None


7. Plasmid is
a) Circular RNA
b) Spring shape DNA
c) Circular DNA✅
d) Both b & c


8. Types of protein
a) Fibrous
b) Globular
c) Membrane
d) All of them✅


9. Structure types of membrane proteins
a) Beta barrels
b) Helix bundles
c) Both a & b✅
d) none


10. examples of environmental stimuli
a) photon hitting cells in retina of eye
b) odorants binding to odorant receptors in nose
c) both a & b✅
d) none


 

11. types of second messenger are
a) hydrophilic
b) hydrophobic
c) gases
d) all of these✅
12. examples of extra cellular receptors
a) G protein coupled receptors
b) Receptor tyrosine kinase
c) Integrin
d) All✅


13. Types of intra cellular receptors
a) Nuclear receptors
b) Cytoplasmic receptors
c) Both a & b✅
d) Mitochondrial receptors


14. G protein coupled receptors have
a) Protein+ G protein (G alpha, G beta ,G gamma)✅
b) G protein
c) G protein (alpha , beta)
d) G protein (alpha, beta, gamma)


15. Receptor tyrosin kinase is
a) Transmembrane protein
b) Transmembrane protein & have 2 domains✅
c) Transmembrane and have 1 domain
d) 2 domains only


16. Weak acid and bases
a) Only partially ionizes✅
b) Completely ionizes
c) May or may not
d) All


17. PH is
a) Potency of hydrogen ion concentration✅
b) Potency of OH ion concentration
c) Both
d) None


18. PH + POH=
a) 14✅
b) 15
c) 20
d) 21


19. Acid dissociation constant
a) Ka ✅
b) Kw
c) Kc
d) Pk


20. Kw is
a) Equilibrium constant of water✅
b) Acid dissociation constant
c) Base dissociation constant
d) None


 

21. PH+POH=14
a) 9+5=14
b) 8+6=14
c) 7+7=14✅
d) 10+4=14


22. Buffers
a) resist changes in pH from the addition of acid or base
b) resist changes in pH from the addition of acid or base
c) resist changes in pH from the addition of acid or base
d) all✅


23. components of buffer are
a) acid–base conjugate pairs
b) can be a weak acid and a salt of its conjugate base
c) can also be a weak base and a salt of its conjugate acid
d) all✅


24. Does each of the following combinations produce a buffer solution or not
a) . HCl and KCl
b) H2CO3 and NaHCO3✅
c) H3PO4 and NaCl
d) HC2H3O2 and KC2H3O2
Biochemistry


1. What are short polypeptides called?
A. Primary structures
B. Secondary structures
C. Polypeptides
D. Oligopeptides✅


2. What is comprised of alpha-helices or parallel or antiparallel beta-pleated sheets?
A. Primary structures
B. Secondary structures✅
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above


3. At what amino acids can beta-turns occur?
A. Glycine and alanine
B. Glycine and proline✅
C. Glutamate and proline
D. Glutamate and alanine

4. Where can disulfide covalent linkages occur between adjacent alpha-helices?
A. In keratin
B. In the major protein of hair
C. In nails
D. All of the above✅


5. Which of the following is a incomplete dietary protein found in connective tissues?
A. Collagen✅
B. Keratin
C. RNase A
D. All of the above


6. What is the cause of scurvy?
A. Not being exposed to enough sunlight
B. Misfolding protiens
C. Defective collagen✅ formation
D. All of the above


7. Fats and oils are also known as _______?
A. Polypeptides
B. Polymers
C. Tripeptides
D. Triglycerides✅
E. Trisaccharides


8. What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?
A. They are isomers
B. They are epimers✅
C. They are ketoses
D. No relationship exists


9. What is used to identify reducing sugars and in the past was used to test for diabetes mellitus?
A. Benedict’s test✅
B. N-glycosylation
C. O-glycosylation
D. None of the above


10. What best describes amylose?
A. Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages✅
B. Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
C. Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
D. Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages


 

11. What best describes amylopectin?
A. Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
B. Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
C. Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages✅
D. Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages


12. Where is glycogen stored?
A. In the kidney and liver
B. In the stomach and kidney
C. In the muscle and liver✅
D. In the muscle and stomach


13. In the conversion of glucose and oxygen to carbon dioxide and water, which molecule is oxidized?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Glucose✅
D. Water


14. NAD+ is a __________, its reduced form is _____________.
A. Electron carrier, NADPH
B. Electron carrier, NADH✅
C. Reducing agent, NAD
D. Transport protein, NADH


15. What is the role of oxygen in cellular respiration?
A. It is reduced in glycolysis as glucose is oxidized
B. It provides electrons to the ETC
C. It provides the activation energy needed for oxidation to occur
D. It is the final electron acceptor for the ETC✅
E. It combines with the carbon removed during the citric acid cycle to form carbon dioxide


16. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are generated for each molecule of acetyl CoA introduced into the citric acid cycle?
A. 1
B. 2✅
C. 3
D. 4


17. Which of the following reactions is incorrectly paired with its location?
A. ATP synthysis-inner membrane of the mitochondrion, matrix, and cytosol
B. Fermentation – cell cytosol
C. Glycolysis – cell cytosol
D. Substrate level phosphorylation – cytosol & matrix
E. Citric acid cycle – cristae of mitochondrion✅


18. Why is glycolysis considered one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved?
A. It relies on fermentation, which is characteristic of archaea & bacteria
B. It is found only in prokaryotes, whereas eukaryotes use their mitochondria to produce ATP
C. It produces much less ATP than does the electron transport chain & chemiosmosis
D. It relies totally on enzymes that are produced by free ribosomes, and bacteria have only free ribosomes and no bound ribosomes
E. It is nearly universal, is located in the cytosol, and does not involve oxygen✅


19. Cyanide is a poison that blocks the passage of electrons along the ETC. Which of the following is a metabolic effect of this poison?
A. No proton gradient would be produced, and ATP synthesis would cease✅
B. NADH supplies would be exhausted, and ATP synthesis would cease
C. Alcohol would build up in the cells
D. Electrons are passed directly to oxygen, causing cells to explode
E. The pH of the intermembrane space becomes much lower than normal


20. Account for the net production of ATP at each step of cell respiration for one molecule of glucose.
A. Glycolysis=2, citric acid cycle=2, oxidative phosphorylation=32✅
B. Glycolysis=4, citric acid cycle=2, oxidative phosphorylation=32
C. Glycolysis=2, citric acid cycle=1, oxidative phosphorylation=32
D. Glycolysis=2, citric acid cycle=2, oxidative phosphorylation=36


 

MICROBIOLOGY MCQs


1. In prokaryote, karyo means.
A. Cell.
B. Cytoplasm.
C. Membrane
D. Nucleus
ANSWER: D


2. ______ can not be seen using light microscope.
A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. algae
D. viruses
ANSWER: D


3. The study of the frequency and distribution of disease is known as _______.
A. epidemiology
B. etiology
C. population genetics
D. phytopathology
ANSWER: A


4. The study of microscopic organisms are called ________.
A. Endomology
B. Zoology
C. Enzymology
D. Microbiology
ANSWER: D


5. Anaerobic microorganisms were first discovered by _________.
A. Robert Koch
B. John Needham
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Ferdinand Cohn
ANSWER: C


6. Single celled and multicellular microscopic organisms with true nuclei and which absorb
nutrients from their environment are __________.
A. fungi
B. viruses
C. algae
D. bacteria
ANSWER: A


7. Microorganism was first observed by _______.
A. Leeuwenhoek
B. Koch
C. Pasteur
D. Lister
ANSWER: A


8. Living organisms arising from nonliving
substances can be called ________.
A. spontaneous generation
B. germ theory and cell theory
C. univocal generation
D. abiogenesis
ANSWER: A


9. An Italian physician who demonstrated that maggots arise from fly eggs and not rotten meats was
_______.
A. Louis Pastuer
B. Robert Koch
C. Redi
D. Edward Jenner
ANSWER: C


10. Cell theory was proposed by __________.
A. Schleiden and Schwann
B. Robert Hooke
C. Schleiden and Robert
D. Charles Darwin
ANSWER: B


 

The theory that states that microbes can invade other organisms and cause disease is the ______.
A. germ theory of disease
B. spontaneous generation
C. univocal generation
D. abiogenesis
ANSWER: A


12. A scientist who formulated four postulates to associate a particular organism with a specific
disease was ______.
A. Louis Pastuer
B. Robert Koch
C. Alexander Fleming
D. Edward Jenner
ANSWER: B


13. Periplasmic space is found ________.
A. in between cell wall and cell membrane
B. below cell membrane
C. within outer membrane
D. in between outer membrane and peptidoglycan
ANSWER: D


14. A German physician who recognized the connection between autopsies and puerperal fever was
_______.
A. Rudolf Virchow
B. Friedrich Hoffmann
C. Semmel Weiz
D. Alexander Mitscherlich
ANSWER: C


15. Killing effect of dry heat is due to
A. protein denaturation
B. elevated levels of electrolysis
C. oxidative damage
D. all the above
ANSWER: D


16. A tentative explanation to account for an observed condition or event is known as ________.
A. hypothesis
B. observation
C. investigation
D. all the above
ANSWER: D


17. A project designed to map the location of every gene in all human chromosome is the
________.
A. human genome project
B. human genetics
C. gene pool
D. human genome analysis
ANSWER: A


18. Bacteria can be measured in metric units called ________.
A. millimeters
B. micrometers
C. nanometers
D. picometers
ANSWER: B


19. Viruses should be measured in metric units called _________.
A. millimeters
B. micrometers
C. nanometers
D. picometers
ANSWER: C


20. The widest cone of light that can enter an objective lens would be called __________.
A. numerical aperture
B. resolution
C. magnification
D. coarse adjustment
ANSWER: A


 

21. A compound microscope with a single eyepiece is said to be _________.
A. monocular
B. binoculars
C. monocular and binoculars
D. uniocular
ANSWER: A


22. Positively charged dyes that are commonly used in bacteriological stains are _______.
A. cationic dyes
B. anionic dyes
C. metallized dyes
D. sulphur dyes
ANSWER: B


23. Which one of the following is a selective medium?
A. Mac Conkey agar
B. Blood agar
C. Nutrient agar
D. Mineral agar
ANSWER: A


24. Stains which color the background and not the organism are called ______ stains.
A. negative
B. positive
C. acidic
D. basic
ANSWER: A


25. Certain bacteria from highly resistant structures called ______ from free living, reproducing
cells called ________ cells
A. endospores, vegetative
B. endospores, somatic
C. endospores, multiresistant
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D


26. In microscopy, the thickness of a specimen that is in focus at any one time is called _____.
A. depth of field
B. diameter
C. wavelength
D. velocity
ANSWER: A


27. Organisms that lack a defined nucleus would be called _______.
A. prokaryotic
B. eukaryotic
C. plant cell.
D. animal cell.
ANSWER: A


28. _________bacteria vary widely in their cellular form even within a single culture.
A. Pleomorphic
B. Polymorphic
C. Monomorphic
D. Dimorphic
ANSWER: A


29. A tough, interlinked component of the cell wall of bacteria that provides rigidity is the
________.
A. capsule
B. peptidoglycan
C. cell membrane.
D. cell wall
ANSWER: B


30. The two repeating subunits of the peptidoglycan layer are ________.
A. Nacetyl
glucosamine.
B. Nacetyl
muramic acid.
C. Nacetyl
glycosamine.
D. both a and b.
ANSWER: D


 

31. A toxic component of the outer layer of Gram negative bacteria is ________.
A. lipid A.
B. protein A.
C. lipid B.
D. lipid C.
ANSWER: A


32. If an organism loses its cell wall, the resultant structure called a ________.
A. endospores
B. protoplast
C. spheroplast
D. spores.
ANSWER: B


33. An antibiotic that affects the formation of the cell wall is ________.
A. penicillin
B. ampicillin
C. tetracyclin
D. streptomycin
ANSWER: A


34. Hydrocarbon ends of fatty acids are said to be _______.
A. hydrophobic, nonpolar.
B. hydrophilic, nonpolar.
C. hydrophobic, polar.
D. hydrophobic, polar.
ANSWER: A


35. Accumulations of polyphosphate volutin granules with cytoplasm of bacteria are called ____.
A. metachromatic
B. monochromatic.
C. minichromatic.
D. macrochromatic.
ANSWER: A


36. Members of the genus Bacillus and Clostridium produce resistant structures called _______.
A. spores
B. endospores
C. capsular structure
D. inclusion bodies
ANSWER: B


37. Flagella distributed all over the surface of bacteria are called _________.
A. peritrichous
B. monotrichous
C. atrichous
D. amphitrichous
ANSWER: A


38. Spirochete may possess a series of internal filaments used for motion, known as _______.
A. stalk
B. tail
C. axial filaments
D. biaxial filaments
ANSWER: C


39. Any substances containing polysaccharides found external to the cell wall is known the
_______.
A. lipid
B. protein
C. glycocalyx
D. peptidoglycon
ANSWER: C


40. Molecules that add rigidity to all membranes of eukaryotes are _____.
A. lipid
B. protein
C. sterols
D. fatty acids
ANSWER: C


 

41. Proteins bound to the DNA of the eukaryotic cells are _______.
A. Histones
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Protein
ANSWER: A


42. Mitochondria are characterized by extensive inner membrane folds are known as ______.
A. matrix
B. granules
C. cristae
D. fimbriae
ANSWER: C


43. A eukaryotic organelle which contains digestive enzymes is a ______.
A. lysosome
B. mitochondria
C. chloroplast
D. golgi complex
ANSWER: A


44. Movement of molecules from a region of higher to lower concentration by means of a carrier
protein is called ______.
A. simply diffusion
B. tracer diffusion
C. chemical diffusion
D. facilitated diffusion
ANSWER: D


45. A membrane that allows the passage of only a selected group of substances is said to be ______.
A. selectively permeable
B. impermeable
C. semi permeable
D. impenetrable
ANSWER: A


46. Cells immersed in an ______ solution would exhibit no change in their cell volume.
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. immiscible
ANSWER: C


47. _______ that form into long chains may be identified by the prefix
A. Streptococci.
B. Staphylococci
C. Diplococci
D. Micrococci
ANSWER: A


48. A bacterial cell duplicates its components and divides into two cells by _______.
A. Endospores formation.
B. Budding
C. Fragmentation
D. Binary fission
ANSWER: D


49. Organisms that have adapted to a medium thus allowing for rapid exponential growth are in the
_______ phase.
A. lag
B. log
C. stationary
D. decline
ANSWER: A


50. If bacteria could divide together and have the exact same generation time they could exhibit
_____.
A. continous
B. fed batch
C. batch
D. synchronous
ANSWER: D


 

51. During the decline phase, many cells exhibit unusual shapes which is caused by ______.
A. involution
B. ingestion
C. digestion
D. high energy conversion
ANSWER: A


52. A method used to measure bacterial growth that requires the use of a series of dilution tubes is
________.
A. spectrophotometric
B. staining
C. serial dilution
D. cell mass
ANSWER: C


53. An indication of bacterial growth due to ________
A. acidity nature
B. alkalinity
C. turbidity
D. cell dry biomass
ANSWER: C


54. Organisms that can tolerate very low pH conditions are called ________.
A. acidophiles
B. thermophiles
C. hyperthermophiles
D. alkalinophiles
ANSWER: A


55. Organisms that prefer temperatures above 50°C are known as ________.
A. thermophiles
B. acidophiles
C. hyperthermophiles
D. alkalinophiles
ANSWER: A


56. Which organism can tolerate one environmental condition but still live in another?
A. aerobes
B. anaerobes
C. facultative
D. endospores producing microbes
ANSWER: C


57. An enzyme which can break into H2O and O2 is ________.
A. catalase
B. oxidase
C. urease
D. proteases
ANSWER: A


58. Obligate anaerobes are killed by a highly reactive form of oxygen called ________.
A. superoxide
B. reactive oxygen
C. free radicals
D. dismutase
ANSWER: A


59. When cells lose water and their membranes shrink away from the cell wall indicates that they
are undergoing ________.
A. lysis
B. plasmolysis
C. lysogenic
D. caryolysis
ANSWER: D


60. Organisms that have many special nutritional needs are ________
A. fastidious
B. Lactobacillus sp
C. Mycobacterium sp
D. all the above
ANSWER: D


 

61. The processes of endospore formation is known as ________.
A. sporulation.
B. germination
C. propagation
D. binary fission
ANSWER: A


62. The two bacterial genera that produce endospores are ________.
A. Bacillus, Clostridium
B. Escherichia coli, Bacillus
C. Actinobacter, Bacillus
D. Staphylococcus, Streptococcus
ANSWER: A


63. A method of pure culturing bacteria by means of an agar plates and an inoculating loop is
_____.
A. streak plate
B. pour plate
C. spread plate
D. quadrant streak
ANSWER: A


64. A culture medium which contains known specific kinds and amounts of chemicals is a _______.
A. Liquid
B. solid
C. selective
D. defined synthetic
ANSWER: D


65. A medium that encourages the growth of some organisms but suppresses others is a ______.
A. liquid
B. solid
C. defined synthetic
D. selective
ANSWER: D


66. Isolated organisms can be maintained in a pure culture called ________
A. stock cultures
B. standard culture
C. enrichment culture
D. selective culture
ANSWER: A


67. A preserved culture maintained to keep its characteristics as originally defined is a _______
A. reference culture
B. standard culture
C. enrichment culture
D. selective culture
ANSWER: A


68. Pasteur is credited with all the following except ________.
A. construction of swan necked vessels
B. development of a vaccine for rabies
C. development of the technique for rabies
D. became the director of the Pasteur institute in Paris, France
ANSWER: D


69. One of the most important contributions of Robert Koch in his development of the germ theory
of disease was the ________.
A. use of test animals in research
B. use of the microscope
C. development of the technique of pure culturing
D. development of the busen burner
ANSWER: C


70. Fungi can be characterized as ________.
A. photosynthetic organism
B. organisms lacking a cell wall
C. organisms lacking a true nucleus
D. organism that absorb nutrients from their environment
ANSWER: D


 

71. Phycology is the study of ________.
A. molds
B. bacteria
C. viruses
D. algae
ANSWER: D


72. The total magnification of a microscope with the low power lens (10X) and ocular lens (15X) in
position would be _______.
A. 25
B. 15
C. 150
D. 1500
ANSWER: C


73. A major difference between the SEM and the TEM is that the SEM ________.
A. can resolve objects smaller than 20 nanometer
B. requires less of a vacuum system than the TEM
C. can create three dimensional images
D. does not require the use of any metal coating of the specimen
ANSWER: C


74. Heat fixation accomplishes all the following expect ________.
A. helps the dye to penetrate the cells
B. kills the bacteria on the slide
C. decreases distortion of the cells prior to the addition of strains
D. fixes the organisms to the slide
ANSWER: C


75. The condenser lens of a microscope ________.
A. increases the magnification
B. generally can magnify an object ten times
C. increases the light refraction
D. converges light beams onto the specimen
ANSWER: D


76. If a bacterium measures 0.3 micrometer, it would measure how many angstroms?
A. 300
B. 30
C. 3000
D. 3
ANSWER: C


77. An example of a nonionizing
type of radiation which is microbiocidal is _______.
A. Gamma rays
B. UV rays
C. Xrays
D. electrons
ANSWER: C


78. Which of the following would not be consistent with eukaryotic organisms?
A. membrane bound organelle
B. presence of histones
C. cell membranes lacking sterols
D. paired chromosomes
ANSWER: B


79. The peptidoglycan layer of the cell wall ________.
A. consist of lipopolysaccharide
B. is formed from repeating molecules of glunac and murnac
C. represents the lipid bilayer
D. lacks teichoic acids
ANSWER: B


80. Dipicolinic acid is commonly associated with ________.
A. endospore coats
B. lipopolysaccharide of gram negative bacteria
C. peptidoglycan layer of gram positive bacteria
D. mesosomes
ANSWER: A


 

81. Bacterial flagella ________.
A. attach to the cell wall via the teichoic acids and calcium
B. form a hook after leaving the cell
C. are about the same size as eukaryotic flagella
D. are composed of lipopolysaccharides units called flagellin
ANSWER: B


82. Select the most CORRECT statement in relation to serial dilution.
A. diluted samples are transferred to nutrient broth tubes
B. the number of colonies on the plate is multiplied by the denominator of the dilution factor
C. the test can accurately measure live and dead cells
D. countable plates should contain between 10 and 30 colonies
ANSWER: B


83. Which of the following methods is NOT used to determine bacterial numbers?
A. turbidity
B. serial dilution
C. direct microscopic counts
D. all the above
ANSWER: D


84. Temperature can control bacteria because ________.
A. freezing will kill all the bacteria
B. hot temperatures (above 80c) will denature bacterial protein
C. refrigerator temperatures stop the growth of all bacteria
D. no bacteria can live above 180F
ANSWER: B


85. Endospores ________.
A. are generally formed for protection and reproduction
B. are formed only when conditions become unfavorable.
C. contain dipicolinic acid and calcium
D. contain laminated layers of peptidoglycan called the exosporium
ANSWER: C


86. Select the most INCORRECT statement concerning culturing of bacteria ________.
A. a synthetic medium consists of unidentifiable ingredients such as those found in beef extract
B.
C. the streak plate method uses agar plates and a wire inoculating loop
D. an enrichment medium contains ingredients such as blood which can enhance the growth of
certain organisms
ANSWER: A


87. A specially calibrated counting chamber used with direct microscopic counts is called _____.
A. petroff hausser counter
B. haemocytometer counter
C. GeigerMuller
counter
D.
ANSWER: A


88. Trace elements such as copper and zinc often serve as ________.
A. cofactors
B. inducers
C. receptors
D. inhibitors
ANSWER: A


89. A substance that forms an insoluble complex with stain and serves to fix the color to bacterial
cell is called _______.
A. mordant
B. intensifier
C. fixative
D. dyes

ANSWER: A


90. The ratio of diameter of lenses to its focal length is referred as ________.
A. magnification
B. resolution
C. numerical aperture
D. focal length
ANSWER: A


 

91. The ability to reveal closely adjacent points as separate and distinct _______.
A. magnification
B. resolution
C. numerical aperture
D. focal length
ANSWER: B


92. In _______ microscope, the field surrounding a specimen appears black, while the object itself
is brightly illuminated
A. compound
B. phase contrast
C. dark field
D. fluorescence
ANSWER: C


93. Use of single stain to color the bacteria is commonly called as ________ staining.
A. simple
B. Gram
C. differential
D. negative
ANSWER: A


94. A substance that forms an insoluble complex with stain and serves to fix the color to bacterial
cell is called as ________.
A. mordant
B. intensifier
C. fixative
D. dyes
ANSWER: A


95. In Grams Staining, Grams iodine is act as ________.
A. counter stain
B. primary stain
C. secondary stain
D. mordant
ANSWER: D


96. A stain which on ionization gives positively charged molecules is referred as ________.
A. acidic stain
B. Basic stain
C. anionic stain
D. basic mordant
ANSWER: A


97. The charged group of bacterial cell surface produces attraction between basic stain ______.
A. negative
B. positive
C. neutral
D. all of the above
ANSWER: B


98. The differential staining technique refers as ________ staining.
A. monochrome
B. Gram
C. negative
D. endospore
ANSWER: B


99. In Gram Staining, Safranin is act as ________.
A. primary stain
B. mordant
C. counter stain
D. decolorizer
ANSWER: C


100. In Gram staining, differentiation of microorganisms is based on ________.
A. cell wall
B. plasma membrane
C. capsule
D. flagella
ANSWER: A


 

101. The PetroffHausser
counting chamber consist of ________.
A. 25 squares
B. 100 squares
C. 50 squares
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A


102. A culture containing only one kind of microorganism is called ________.
A. synchronous culture
B. pure culture
C. auxenic culture
D. continuous culture
ANSWER: B


103. The process that reduces the bacterial count to safe levels as may judged by the public health is
referred as ________.
A. sterilization
B. sanitization
C. disinfection
D. antisepsis
ANSWER: B


104. Culture containing more than one kind of microorganism is called ________.
A. synchronous culture
B. pure culture
C. auxenic culture
D. continuous culture
ANSWER: C


105. To maintain the bacterial population in ______ phase is referred as continuous culture.
A. lag phase
B. log phase
C. stationary phase
D. death phase
ANSWER: B


106. Slide culture technique is used for ________ cultivation
A. bacterial
B. fungi
C. virus
D. algae
ANSWER: B


107. The type of media is used for fungi cultivation is ________ agar.
A. nutrient
B. Mac Conkeys
C. sabourauds
D. plant
ANSWER: C


108. Macintosh Jar is used for ________.
A. cultivation of anaerobes
B. cultivation of aerobes
C. fungal cultivation
D. algal cultivation
ANSWER: A


109. Maintenance of sterile condition is referred as ________.
A. aseptic technique
B. septic technique
C. disinfection
D. fumigation
ANSWER: A


110. _______ rays are referred as non ionizing radiations.
A. UV
B. X
C. gamma
D. cathode
ANSWER: B


 

111. In Laminar air flow_________ type of filter is located
A. membrane filter
B. seitz filter
C. HEPA
D. slow filter
ANSWER: C


112. ___________ is referred as biological indicator of autoclave.
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus megatorium
D. Bacillus cereus
ANSWER: A


113. Fluorescent substance is used in ________.
A. viscometer
B. centrifugation
C. flow cytometry
D. spectrophotometer
ANSWER: D


114. The process of killing or removal of organisms capable of causing infection is called as
______.
A. sterilization
B. sanitization
C. disinfection
D. antisepsis
ANSWER: A


115. The pH meter standardized with pH ________.
A. 7
B. 2
C. 14
D. 4
ANSWER: A


116. Colorimeter is applied only in relation to _______.
A. uv light
B. X rays
C. visible light
D. IR rays
ANSWER: A


117. The amount of light absorbed by a material is proportional to the concentration of the
absorbing solution is referred as ________ law.
A. Beers
B. Bogers Lambert
C. Poiseuilles
D. Newtons
ANSWER: A


118. Separation of small molecule can be done by ________.
A. viscometer
B. centrifugation
C. flow cytometry
D. spectrophotometer
ANSWER: B


119. Microbes such as E. coli are able to manufacture vitamin in the human intestinal tract _____.
A. A
B. D
C. C
D. K
ANSWER: D


120. A slippery outer covering in some bacteria that protects them from phagocytosis by host cells
is ________.
A. capsule
B. cell wall
C. flagellum
D. peptidoglycan
ANSWER: A


 

121. Gram negative cell wall is __________ than a Gram positive one.
A. thicker
B. thinner
C. thickest
D. thin
ANSWER: B


122. Most human pathogens prefer temperatures near that of the human body. They are called as
A. psychrophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. halophiles
ANSWER: C


123. Which year Beijerinck found the free living nitrogen fixing bacteria Azotobacter __________.
A. 1909
B. 1919
C. 1921
D. 1901
ANSWER: D


124. _______ are very small, multishaped
bacteria lacking a true cell.
A. Rickettsias
B. Actinomycetes
C. Spirochetes
D. Mycoplasmas
ANSWER: A


125. Magnetitebearing
magnetosomes have also been found in eukaryotic magnetotactic
_________.
A. algae
B. fungi
C. bacteria
D. protozoan
ANSWER: A


126. The model organism, which used to study endospore formation is ________.
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Streptomyces aureus
D. yeast
ANSWER: A


127. The role of pili in cloning of bacteria in E.coli is ________.
A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. tranfection
D. transduction
ANSWER: A


128. Some pathogenic bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics by ________.
A. modifying their cell walls
B. developing such enzymes which modify antibiotics
C. alter the antibiotics target due to spontaneous mutation
D. all the above
ANSWER: D


129. A biofertiliser is ________.
A. living
B. nonliving
C. chemical
D. synthetic
ANSWER: A


130. Cyanobacteria helps farmers by ________.
A. reducing the alkalinity of the soil
B. reducing the acidity of the soil
C. neutralising the alkalinity of the soil
D. water logging
ANSWER: B


 

131. Various commercial products of economic value made by microbes are ______
A. medicines
B. organic acids
C. amino acids
D. all the above
ANSWER: D


132. Many individuals of the same species living together in a defined area form a/an ________.
A. community
B. genus
C. population
D. ecosystem
ANSWER: A


133. Why is it difficult to integrate nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into the nitrogen cycle of the
biosphere?
A. nitrogen is not very abundent in the atmosphere
B. few organisms can directly utilize atmospheric nitrogen gas
C. most plants do not require organic nitrogen compounds for survival
D. oceans quickly absorb nitrogen gas
ANSWER: B


134. A culture medium on which only Gram positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds
Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a ________.
A. selective medium
B. differential medium
C. enrichment culture
D. a and b
ANSWER: D


135. Abiogenesis refers to the ________.
A. spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter
B. development of life forms from preexisting life forms
C. developmeat of aseptic technique
D. germ theory of disease
ANSWER: A


136. While using any pair of carbon compounds as long as other nutrients are not limiting, the
bacteria shows ______ growth.
A. diauxic
B. continuous
C. batch
D. synchronous
ANSWER: A


137. Endospores were first discovered by ________.
A. Ferdinand Cohn
B. Louis Pasteur
C. John Tyndal
D. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
ANSWER: A


138. The protein surrounded the genetic material of viruses are called ________.
A. envelope
B. capsid
C. cover
D. cortex
ANSWER: B


139. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of ________.
A. protein and DNA
B. protein and rrna
C. protein and mrna
D. protein and RNA
ANSWER: B


140. Energy production in anaerobes is not by ________.
A. TCA cycle
B. EMP pathway
C. fermentation
D. pentose phosphate shunt
ANSWER: A


 

141. Contagious disease spreads by ________.
A. inhalation
B. ingestion
C. inculation
D. contact
ANSWER: D


142. The widely used fumigant is ________.
A. ethylene
B. chlorine
C. formaldehyde
D. CO2
ANSWER: C


143. Lyophilization is a method of ________.
A. characterization of microorganisms
B. destroying microorganisms
C. preservation of microorganisms
D. regulating microorganisms
ANSWER: C


144. ________ fungi shows sexual reproduction
A. aPathogenic
B. Reproductive
C. Perfect
D. Saprophytic.
ANSWER: C


145. The first virus to be crystallized was ________.
A. rabies
B. pox virus
C. tobacco mosaic virus
D. polio virus
ANSWER: C


146. The iodineorganic
carrier complex iodophore is __________.
A. ethylene oxide
B. methane
C. chloroform
D. ozone
ANSWER: A


147. In nitrogen fixation, nitrogen from the atmosphere is combined with __________.
A. oxygen atoms
B. hydrogen atoms
C. carbon atoms
D. calcium atoms
ANSWER: B


148. An example of a nonionizing
type of radiation which is microbiocidal is ________.
A. gamma rays
B. uv rays
C. Xrays
D. electrons
ANSWER: C


149. The principle behind the sterilization using autoclave is ________.
A. high pressure
B. bhigh steam
C. hot vapors
D. steam under pressure
ANSWER: D


150. Microbe is bright and the field is dark in_________.
A. darkfield
microscopy
B. phase contrast microscopy
C. bright field microscopy
D. electron microscopy
ANSWER: A


 

PHYSIOLOGY MCQs


1. which statement is false regarding muscle characteristic…
a. Excitability
b. Contractibility
c. Extensibility
d. Elasticity
e. Conductibility ✅


2. Which of the following is not released by the anterior pituitary gland?
a. Anti-diuretic Gland✅
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Prolactin
e. Thyroid stimulating hormones


3. The “thick” muscle filament is composed of
a. Actine
b. Myosin✅
c. sarcomeres
d. Troponin
e. Z-Lines


4. Hormone are chemical messenger secreted by the
a. Endocrien organ
b. Endocrine and exocrine organ ✅
c. Exocrine organ
d. Liver
e. Kidney


5. Which of the one is Best Definition of Hemeostasis…
a. Osmoregulation of body
b. Control of Temperature
c. Independence of the external environment
d. Is essential for the normal functioning of the cell
e. Maintenance of constancy of internal environment ✅


6. Type of major salivary glands are
a) 3 ✅
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6


7. Secretions from Parotid Glands glands are emptied into the oral cavity by
a) Stensen duct.✅
b) Wharton duct.
c) Duct of ravines.
d) Barthilon duct.


8. In the sublingual glands saliva is poured through small ducts that are open on small papillae
a) Beneath the tongue✅.
b) Beneath the teeth.
c) Inside the cheeks
d) At the upper molar tooths.


9. Excess calcium is secreted in saliva during.
a) Hyperparathyroidism✅
b) Nephritis
c) Diabetes
d) Tonsillitis


10. An autoimmune disorder in which the immune cells destroy exocrine glands such as lacrimal glands and salivary glands is
a) Sjögren Syndrome ✅
b) Xerostomia
c) Chorda Tympani Syndrome
d) Autoimmune syndrome


Surface acting material or agent that is responsible for lowering the surface tension of a fluid.
a) Elastic property of lung
b) Surface tension
c) Intraplural pressure ✅
d) Extra plural pressure
e) Surfactant


11. The pressure existing in pleural cavity between the visceral and parietal layers of pleura is
a) Surface tension
b) Surfactant
c) Intraplural pressure ✅
d) Plural pressure


12. Normal atmospheric pressure
a) 760 cm H2O
b) 780 mm H2O
c) 760 nn Hg
d) 760mm Hg✅


13. Intraplural pressure is always
a) Positive
b) Depends upon atmospheric
c) Negative ✅
d) Zero


14. In valsalva maneuver intraplural pressure is
a) Positive✅
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Not accessible


15. Pressure exsiting in the alveoli of the lungs is called
a) Intra alveolar pressure
b) Intra pulmonary pressure
c) Plural pressure
d) A and B ✅


16. Ability of lung and thorax to expand is called
a) Elasticity
b) Compliance✅
c) Compatibility
d) Friction


17. Ability of thorax and lungs measure during breathing is called.
a) Dynamic compliance ✅
b) Static compliance
c) Abnormal compliance
d) Normal compliance


18. In old age compliance of lungs
a) Decrease
b) Increase ✅
c) Remain unchanged
d) Become zero


19. The volume of air breathed in and out of lung in a single normal quiet respiration
a) Respiration
b) Residual volume
c) Tidal volume ✅
d) Lung volume


20. Normal tidal volume is
a) 760ml
b) 550ml
c) 600ml
d) 500ml ✅


 

21. Vital capacity of lung can b find out by
a) VC = RV + ERV
b) VC = IRV + TV + ERV✅
c) VC = IRV + RV + ERV
d) VC = IRV + TV + RV


22. The maximum amount of gases that can be exhaled after a full deep inspiration is called
a) Expiratory reserve volume
b) Vital capacity ✅
c) Total lung capacity
d) Functional residual capacity


23. Decrease in oxygen affinity of Hb when the pH of blood tissue fall is
a) Bohr effect ✅
b) Halden effect
c) Hamburger effect
d) Hawthorn effect


24. In oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve if affinity of oxygen decrease, cure will shift towords
a) Left
b) Right ✅
c) Remain unchanged
d) Zero


25. Glucagon is secreted by _____ islets of Langerhans
a) Alpha cells ✅
b) Beta cells
c) Delta cells
d) PP cells


26. Hyperkalemia causes.
a) Muscle weakness
b) Insomnia
c) Cardiac toxicity✅
d) Headache


27. Glucocorticoid has permission action on
a) Gluconeogenesis effect of glucagon.
b) Carbohydrate metabolism by insulin
c) Calorigenic effect of glucagon ✅
d) Inhibition of secretion of gastric juice by glucagon


28. Which vitamin activated in kidney
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B3
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin D ✅


29. The pH of extracellular fluid is.
a) 7.6
b) 7.2
c) 7.0
d) 6.9
e) 7.4 ✅


30. Which one of the following in an example of negative feedback mechanism?
a) Secretion of thyroxin✅
b) Milk ejection reflex
c) Coagulation of blood
d) Parturition


 

31. Juxtacrine messenger involves which of following substance?
a) Insuline
b) Histamine ✅
c) Leukotrines
d) Dopamine


32. Receptor of adrenal modularly hormones are situated at
a) Cytoplasm
b) Cell membrane✅
c) Nucleoli
d) Nucleus


33. Catecholamine acts through
a) By altering permeability of cell membrane
b) By altering permeability of nuclear membrane
c) By activating intracellular enzyme✅
d) By acting on genes


34. Growth hormones effects increase the release of which hormones
a) TSH
b) Oxytoxin
c) Insulin ✅
d) Calcitonin


35. Which of following action is carried out by thyroxin?
a) Reduce the glucose uptake by cell.
b) Increase glycogen production
c) Accelerate gluconeogenesis✅
d) Increase peripheral utilization of glucose.


36. The primary funcation of Juxtaglomerular apparatus is.
a) Formation of urine.
b) Secreation of hormones✅
c) Re-absorption of sodium
d) Uric acid formation.


37. Angiotensin II causes the constriction of
a) Large blood vessels
b) Small blood vessels
c) Arterioles ✅
d) Capillaries


38. Hypertrophy is caused by
a) Angiotensis II ✅
b) Aldosterone
c) Angiotensin
d) Prostaglandin


39. Loup diuretic inhibit electrolyte re-absorption form
a) Thin descending segment
b) Thick descending segment
c) Hair pin bends
d) Thin ascending segments
e) Thick ascending segments✅


40. Increase in urine volume indicates
a) Carbohydrate catabolism
b) Increase in lipolytic activity
c) Catabolism of proteins✅
d) Diabetic mellitus


 

41. Colour of skin depends upon
a) Melanin ✅
b) Dermis
c) Epidermis
d) Keratin
e) Hypodermis


42. Enzyme Collagenase is responsible for
a) Colour of skin
b) Production of melanin
c) Wound healing✅
d) Both a & b


Lysosome also called
a) Collecting system
b) Garbage system ✅
c) Synthetic system
d) A and C


43. Largest organ of body is
a) Heart
b) Intestine
c) Skin ✅
d) Hairs


44. Acceleration of thyroxin
a) Decrease metabolic rate
b) Increase metabolic✅
c) Do not effect metabolic rate
d) Produce ADP + iP


45. Control of skeletal muscle is
a) Only neurogenic✅
b) Myogenic
c) Neurogenic and myogenic
d) All of above


46. Neuromuscular junction is a juncation between
a) Nerve fiber and muscle fiber✅
b) Nerve fiber and parathyroid
c) Nerve fiber and thyroid
d) Nerve fiber and skin directly


47. which of following enzyme that breakdown a neurotransmitter
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholinestrase ✅
d) Acetylcholine


48. A rapid rise in depolarization and rapid fall in repolarization are together called
a) Overshoot
b) Spike potential ✅
c) Latent period
d) Action potential


49. Red muscle also called
a) slow muscle
b) slow twitch muscle
c) fast muscle
d) fast twitch muscle
e) A and B ✅


50. Hormone necessary for spermatogenesis at stage of maturation is
a) Testosterone, estrogen
b) Testosterone, growth hormone ✅
c) Follicle-stimulating hormone, growth hormone
d) Estrogen


 

51. Testes secretes male sex hormones, which are collectively called
a) Androgen
b) Growth hormone
c) Testosterone ✅
d) FSH


52. From abdominal cavity, ovum enter fallopian tube through the
a) Fimbriated end✅
b) Vagina
c) Uterus
d) B and C


53. During parturition the irritation of uterine muscle during initial contraction leads to further reflex contractions. It is called
a) Reflex mechanism
b) Negative feedback mechanism
c) Positive feedback mechanism✅
d) A and C


54. The endocrine system plays an important role homeostasis and control of various other activity in the body through.
a) Nervous
b) Hormones ✅
c) Pancreas
d) Liver


55. Vitamin B12 is an important maturation factor during erythropoiesis, absence of intrinsic factor in gastric juice causes deficiency of vitamin B12, leading to
a) Pernicious anemia✅
b) Sickle cell anemia
c) Aplastic anemia
d) Polycythemia vera


56. Pepsinogen activates into pepsin through
a) HYDROCHLORIC ACID✅.
b) Gastric amylase
c) Gastric peptidase
d) Trpsinogen


57. ZollingerEllison syndrome is characterized by
a) excess hydrochloric acid✅
b) inhibit secreation of hydrochloric acid
c) gastric atrophy
d) gastritis


58. An autoimmune disorder characterized by the damage of mucosa and atrophy of villi in small intestine, resulting in impaired digestion and absorption is
a) Celiac disease✅.
b) Tropical sprue
c) Crohn,s disease
d) Malabsorption


59. In the mouth enzymes involved in the digestion of carbohydratesare known as
a) amylolytic enzymes✅
b) Gastric amylase
c) Lypolytic enzyme
d) Lingual lipase


60. During digestion of protein in small intestine succus intericus act on large polpeptides through amino peptidases and convert them into
a) Dipeptides
b) Tripeptides
c) Amino acid ✅
d) Maltose


 

61. In digestion of lipid gastric juice act on triglycerides through gastric lipase and converted them into
a) Mono glycerides fatty acid
b) Fatty acid glycerol ✅
c) Lysophospholipids
d) Phosphocholine


62. Vitamin which is synthesized in skin by the action of ultraviolet rays from sun is
a) A
b) K
c) D3✅
d) E


63. Skin regulates water balance and electrolyte balance by excreting water and salts through
a) Kidney
b) Sebaceous gland
c) Sweat gland✅
d) Absorption


64. Centrosome are responsible for the
a) Movement of chromosomes during cell division✅
b) ATP production
c) Synthesis of protein
d) Cellular movment


65. Pleural space contains a thin film of serous fluid which is secreted by the visceral layer of the pleura.
a) intrapleural fluid✅
b) extraplural fluid
c) serous fluid
d) Visceral fluid.


66. Structural and functional unit of lung is.
a) Plural unit
b) Respiratory unit
c) Alveoli ✅
d) Bronchi


67. Which one of the following is not non-respiratory function of respiratory tract?
a) Olfaction
b) Vocalization
c) Maintenance of water balance
d) Exchange of gases


68. Plural cavity expands with accumulation of air is called
a) Hydrothorax
b) Hemothorax
c) Pneumothorax✅
d) Pyothorax


69. A modified respiratory process characterized by forced expiration, and caused by irritation of nasal mucous membrane is called
a) Cough reflex
b) Sneezing reflex ✅
c) Respiratory reflex
d) Expiratory reflex


70. A modified respiratory process characterized by forced expiration and caused by irritation of respiratory tract is called
a) Sneezing reflex
b) Expiratory reflex
c) Cough reflex✅
d) Respiratory reflex


 

GEOGRAPHY MCQs

What part of the atmosphere are you breathing right now?

  1. Bathysphere
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Troposphere
  4. Ionosphere

Cape Agulhas is where which of the following oceans meet?

  1. Atlantic and Indian
  2. Atlantic and arctic
  3. Indian and pacific
  4. Pacific and Atlantic

Which one of the following countries does not border Libya?

  1. Tunisia
  2. Morocco
  3. Egypt
  4. Chad

Which of ther following countries is closest is size to Pakistan?

  1. Congo
  2. Paraguay
  3. Turkey
  4. Chile

Which of the following country is called enclave?

  1. Kosovo
  2. Liechtenstein
  3. Slovakia
  4. San Marino

What is the only country that shares land border with Canada?

  1. Greenland
  2. United states
  3. Russia
  4. Mexico

Which is the only country in South America with coasts on both the Caribbean Sea and the Pacific Ocean?

  1. Peru
  2. Colombia
  3. Chile
  4. Brazil

What is the new capital of Sri Lanka?

    1. Yangon
    2. Colombo
    3. Naypyidawa
    4. Sri Jayewardenepura kotte

What is the new capital of Myanmar?

    1. Yangon
    2. Colombo
    3. Naypyidawa
    4. Katmandu

Equator passes through?

    1. Pakistan
    2. Matta
    3. Malaysia
    4. Indonesia

Mercator is the first to use what term for a collection of maps?

    1. Atlas
    2. Enchiridion
    3. Gazetteer
    4. Encyclopedia

The most commonly well-known geographic coordination system is latitude and longitude… also, commonly referred as?

    1. Parallels and meridians
    2. Horizontals verticals
    3. Primes and equators
    4. X-lines and Y-lines

The only line of latitude which is as large as any line of longitude id the?

    1. Tropic of Capricorn
    2. Prime meridian
    3. Tropic of cancer
    4. Equator

Which African country is long and narrow which is sandwiched between Benin and Ghana ?

    1. Djibouti
    2. Burkina Faso
    3. Togo
    4. Cote D’lvoire

What word is a synonym for all lines of latitude?

    1. Meridian
    2. Equator
    3. Parallel
    4. Hemisphere

What are the system of interlocking lines of latitude and longitude on a map called?

    1. Parallels
    2. Grids
    3. Equator
    4. Meridians

­­­­­What line of latitude lies at 0 degrees?

  1. Parallels
  2. Grids
  3. Equator
  4. Meridians

What is the directional indicator on a map called?

    1. Navigator
    2. Mercator
    3. Compass Rose
    4. Meridian

Degrees on a map are divided into 60 equal parts. What are these parts called?

    1. Days
    2. Seconds
    3. Minutes
    4. Hours

Which of the following countries is closest in size to Yemen?

    1. Myanmar
    2. Syria
    3. Oman
    4. Mali

If you wanted to go on a cruise on which sea would you not be able to sail.

    1. Green sea
    2. Red sea
    3. Yellow sea
    4. Black sea

Based on post-WWⅡ planning principles, which American ’New City’ is locates in the San Francisco Bay area?

    1. Carter
    2. San Leander
    3. Mariner
    4. Foster

Which of the following countries is closest in size to Germany?

    1. Greece
    2. Chile
    3. Spain
    4. Italy

What is the national language of Kenya?

    1. English
    2. French
    3. Kenyatta
    4. Swahili

Which two countries share the longest border?

    1. Chile and Argentina
    2. USA and Canada
    3. USA and Mexico
    4. Brazil and Peru

What is the only Central American country not to have Spanish as its official language?

    1. Belize
    2. Costa rico
    3. Jamaica
    4. panama

What is the only country to speak Dutch American?

    1. Brazil
    2. Bolivia
    3. Suriname
    4. Paraguay

Zacatecas is a state located in which country?

    1. Canada
    2. Mexico
    3. Brazil
    4. Jamaica

What small country is a peninsula in the Persian Gulf? It is also the only country that starts with the letter Q.

    1. Qatar
    2. Qinghai
    3. Qanat
    4. Qiemo

Which of the following three-letter combinations begins the of the most countries?

    1. Mai
    2. Bur
    3. Cam
    4. Bet

In terms of basic physical geography, which of the following is the odd one out?

    1. Zimbabwe
    2. Malawi
    3. Mozambique
    4. Zambia

Madagascar is off the coast of what country?

    1. South Africa
    2. Mazambique
    3. Tanzania
    4. Kenya

How many countries in the world start with “Q”?

    1. 2
    2. 1
    3. 3
    4. 0

Which of these geographical lines through the most countries?

    1. Tropic and Capricorn
    2. Prime Meridian
    3. Equator
    4. Tropic of Cancer

How many U.S. states border the Pacific Ocean?

    1. 4
    2. 7
    3. 3
    4. 5

What is the names of huge modern Ferris wheel overlooking the Thames in downtown London?

    1. London Eye
    2. Big Ben
    3. Stonehenge
    4. None of these

Who are the only people allowed to touch the Stonehenge monument?

    1. Druids
    2. Stuarts
    3. Lords
    4. None of these

What is the name of the bell inside parliament clock tower?

    1. London Eye
    2. Big Ben
    3. Stonehenge
    4. None of these

Removal of the top layer of the soil/rock by wind, water is known as:

    1. Corrosion
    2. Desalination
    3. Detoxification
    4. Erosion

Natural hot water spring occurring in Zealand, Italy and Iceland are known as:

    1. Hot Bubbles
    2. Old Faithful
    3. Fountains
    4. Geysers

Green House effect will lead to:

    1. An increase in oxygen production
    2. Greater rainfall
    3. Decrease in atmospheric pressure
    4. An in increase in the temperature

What are metal bearing rocks called:

    1. Metalloids
    2. Slag
    3. Bitumen
    4. Ores

Coal is formed from:

    1. Rocks
    2. Soil
    3. Organic matter
    4. Lava

Solar energy is a:

    1. Non Renewable source of energy
    2. Polluting source of energy
    3. Very limited source of energy
    4. Renewable source of energy

Which of the following is a main component of common glass?

    1. Water
    2. Marble
    3. Powdered mica
    4. Sand

SOCIOLOGY MCQs

When the researcher asks the respondent face to face question, this method is called:

(a) Interview Schedule  (Answer)

(b) Questionnaire

(c) Observation

(d) Interview guide

(e) None of these


Power that people consider legitimate is known as:
(a) Force

(b) Right

(c) Authority  (Answer)

(d) Previlege

(e) None of these


Social Structure of a society is the network of:

(a) Institutional relations

(b) Value System

(c) Traditions

(d) Compliance to Norms  (Answer)

(e) None of these


WID approach believes in:

(a) Gender mainstreaming

(b) Gender Segregation

(c) Incorporating women in development activities  (Answer)

(d) None of these


Geronotology is the study of:

(a) Human Beings

(b) Special Groups

(c) Aged and Aging  (Answer)

(d) All of these


The most pervasive of the social processes are:

(a) Cooperation

(b) Over Conflict

(c) Competition  (Answer)

(d) None of these


Abstract Sentiments are:

(a) Closer to the center of the self than moral rules

(b) Provide a focus for allegiance  (Answer)

(c) Are compellers of action

(d) None of these


The creative potential of personality is accounted for by:

(a) Stimulus-response psychology

(b) Drive psychology  (Answer)

(c) Trait psychology

(d) None of these


The country with better record for gathering population statistics then any other is:

(a) Japan  (Answer)

(b) Sweden

(c) USA

(d) None of these


The exception to the typical application of endogamy is:
(a) Tribe

(b) Kinship  (Answer)

(c) Race

(d) None of these


Stratified samples fall under:

(a) Probability sampling design  (Answer)

(b) Non-Probability sampling design

(c) Multi-stage sampling design

(d) None of these


Egoistic, the special type of suicide presented by Emile Durkheim spring from:

(a) Excessive regulation

(b) Excessive individualism  (Answer)

(c) Over migration with group

(d) None of these


A close connection between religion and economic forces was presented by:
(a) Max Weber  (Answer)

(b) Karl Max

(c) Emile Durkheim

(d) C. Wright Mill

(e) None of these


A large kinship group whose members inhabit one geographic area and believe they are descendent from a common area is known as:

(a) Clan

(b) Tribe  (Answer)

(c) Kin group 

(d) Class

(e) None of these


A social condition in which values are conflicting, weak or absent is:

(a) Assimilation

(b) Hawthrone effect

(c) Invasion

(d) Anomie  (Answer)


In theoretical field social research aims at:

(a) finding problems of human being

(b) identifying delinquent behaviour  (Answer)

(c) reducing social conflict

(d) None of these


Survey Means:

(a) Overlooking

(b) Organizing social data  (Answer)

(c) Observation

(d) None of these


Independent variables are:

(a) Experimental Groups  (Answer)

(b) Study of social investigation

(c) Study of social life

(d) None of these


Qualitative Data Means:

(a) Expressed in number

(b) Expressed in words  (Answer)

(c) Both of these

(d) None of these


A Likert scale emphasizes:

(a) Reproducibility

(b) Uni-dimensinality  (Answer)

(C) None of these


MATHEMATICS MCQs

Express 7/8 as percentage

  • 87 and half % (87 ½ %)

The sphere radius is increased by 10% . the surface area increases by:

  • 21%

The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 33. The largest of these number is

  • 36

If 4a=8b , what is the ratio of a to b?

  • 2/3

A 100 meters long train passes a bridge at 72 km/h in 25 sec . what is the length of the indige?

  • 600 m

 

9999 + 8888 +777 + ?= 19700

  • 64

9 is 1/3 % of what number?

  • 27

If 4 out of 25 students failed in exam. What percent of them passed?

  • 84 %

The square root of 729 is

  • 27

The zoo had some parrots and some lions ,The zoo keeper counted 15 heads and 50 legs. How many lions were there?

  • 10

5*7/14*10 =?

  • 35/140

18 is 75% of ?

  • 24

2/5 is equal ?/50. Replace ? with correct number for equality ?

  • 10

If a man can manufacture 27 baskets per hour , then 45 men can manufacture how may baskets in 40 minutes?

  • 54

5448 rounded off to the nearest 1000 is

  • 5000

30% of 100 in equal to 3 % of   ?

  • 1000

Aslam ran around a ¼ km track 17 times . how many kilometers did he ran?

  • 4 ¼

Find the square of 35

  • 1225

If each side of Rhombus is equal to 6cm then Calculate the perimeter of a rhombus ?

  • 48 cm

3/1000 written as fraction is

  • 0.003

A rectangle has length of 10 cm and a perimeter of 30 cm  find the width of the rectangle

  • 5cm

42% In a class of 550 students wish to go to college . How many students wish to attend the college?

  • 231

3.29 * 1000 equals to

  • 3290

 

PHYSICS MCQs

Heat is the form of:
a) Power
b) Work
c) Energy
d) Motion

Pressure of the gas depends upon:
a) Only on molecular speed
b) Only on mass of molecule
c) Only on number of molecules in a unit volume
d) Number of molecules in a unit volume, mass and speed of molecule

In the isothermal process, one of the
following is constant:
a) Pressure
b) Volume
c) Temperature
d) Heat energy
e) Specific heat

A process in which no heat enters or leaves
the system is called:
a) Isothermal process
b) Adiabatic process
c) Isochoric process
d) Isobaric process

For a gas obeying Boyle’s law, if the
pressure is doubled, the volume becomes:
a) Double
b) One half
c) Four times
d) One fourth

Gas law PV γ = constant is for:
a) Isothermal process
b) Adiabatic process
c) Isobaric process
d) Isochoric process

Cloud formation in the atmosphere is
example of:
a) Adiabatic process
b) Isothermal process
c) Isochoric process
d) Isobaric process

Boyle’s law holds for ideal gases in.
a) Isochoric processes
b) Isobaric processes
c) Isothermal processes
d) Adiabatic processes

Which one is true for internal energy?
a) It is sum of all forms of energies
associated with molecules of a system.
b) It is a state function of a system
c) It is proportional to transnational K.E of the molecules
d) All are correct

The internal energy of an ideal gas is
directly proportional to:
a) Potential energy
b) Translational kinetic energy
c) Vibrational kinetic energy
d) None of these

Which one is correct relation?
a) CP + CV = γ
b) CP = 1 + R/CV
c) γ = CP/CV
d) CP = 1 − R/CV

Specific heats of a gas at constant pressure
and at constant volume are respectively Cp
and Cv :
a) Cp < Cv
b) Cp > Cv
c) Cp = Cv
d) none of these

Numerical value of Boltzmann’s constant is.
a) 1.38 × 10−31JK−1
b) 3.18 × 10−31JK−1
c) 3.18 × 10−23 JK −1
d) 1.38 × 10−23 JK −1

The first law of thermodynamics is an
expression of:
a) The conservation of energy
b) Conservation of mass
c) Heat death of the universe
d) Degradation of energy

The amount of heat required raising the
temperature of 1 kg of a substance through
1 K is called
a) Specific heat
b) Heat capacity
c) Calorie
d) Joule

The expression for isothermal process is:
a) Q = U
b) Q = W
c) U = W
d) U = −W

In adiabatic expansion, first law of
thermodynamics becomes:
a) ∆Q = ∆W
b) ∆Q = ∆U
c) ∆W = ∆U
d) None of these

The Celsius scale starts from:
a) 32°F
b) 273 K
c) 0°C
d) 373 K

Unit of thermodynamic scale of
temperature is:
a) Kelvin
b) Centigrade
c) Fahrenheit
d) Celsius

Normal human body temperature 98.6o F corresponds to.
a) 37oC
b) 42 oC
c) 55 oC
d) 410 oC

Triple point of water is.
a) 373.16 K
b) 284.16 K
c) 300.16 K
d) 273.16 K

If the temperature of the sink is decreased,
the efficiency of Carnot engine:
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) First increases and then decreases

The area enclosed by the curve ABCDA for
a Carnot heat engine represents the work
done by Carnot engine.
a) At any instant
b) Averagely
c) During its operation
d) During one cycle

Carnot cycle is:
a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) Both
d) None of these

The efficiency of diesel engine is about:
a) 50% to 60%
b) 25% to 30%
c) 35% to 40%
d) 40% to 50%

The efficiency of petrol engine is about:
a) 30% to 35%
b) 25% to 30%
c) 35% to 40%
d) None of these

The efficiency of a Carnot engine between
HTR at T1 and LTR at T2 is given by:
a)211TT-
b)12 1TT -T
c)11 2TT -T
d)1 21T T-T

Working cycle of a typical petrol engine
consists of:
a) Two strokes
b) Four strokes
c) Six strokes
d) Eight strokes

The unit of entropy is:
a) JK
b) K/j
c) J/K
d) J/K2

Mathematically, entropy is represented by:
a) ∆Q =∆S/T
b) ∆S =∆Q/T
c) ∆S = ∆Q/T
d) ∆S =∆T/Q

The increase in the entropy means the
increase in:
a) Disorder
b) Unavailability of energy
c) Randomness
d) All of these

The property of a system that remains
constant during an adiabatic process is
called:
a) Internal energy
b) Entropy
c) Temperature
d) Pressure

In which process entropy remains constant.
a) Isobaric
b) Isochoric
c) Adiabatic
d) Isothermal

When heat is added to the system, the
entropy change is:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) None

A lens which converges a beam of parallel rays to a point is called
(a) Diverging (or concave) lens
(b) Converging (or convex) lens
(c) Plano concave lens
(d) Plano convex lens

A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called
(a) Center of curvature
(b) Focus
(c) Optical centre
(d) Aperture

The diameter of a lens is called
(a) Focal length
(b) Principal axis
(c) Aperture
(d) Radius of curvature

In going form a denser to rarer medium a array of light is
(a) undeviated
(b) bent away form the normal
(c) bent towards the normal
(d) polarized

Unit of power of a lens is
(a) Meter
(b) watt
(c) dioptre
(d) horsepower

Dioptre power of an concave lens of 10 cm focal length is
(a) 10 dioptre
(b) -10 dioptre
(c) 1/10 dioptre
(d) -1/10 dioptre

The power of a concave lens is
(a) real
(b) virtual
(c) positive
(d) negative

The minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is
a. 2 f
b. 2.5 f
c. 3 f
d. 4f

If an object is placed away form ‘2f’ of a converging lens, then the image will be
a. Real and erect
b. Virtual and erect
c. Real and inverted
d. Virtual

A convex lens gives a virtual image only when the objects leis
a. Between principal focus and center of curvature
b. Beyond 2 f
c. At the principal focus
d. Between principal focus and optical center

Magnifying power of simple microscope
a. Increase with increase in focal length
b. Increase with decrease in focal length
c. No effect with decrease or increase with focal length
d. List distance of distinct vision

Image of an object 5 mm high is only 1 cm high. Magnification produced by lens is
a. 0.5
b. 0.2
c. 1
d. 2

The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
a. 15cm
b. 25cm
c. 30cm
d. 40cm

least distance of distinct vision
a. increases with increase in age
b. decrease with increaser in age
c. neither increases nor decreases
d. becomes infinite after 60 years

If a convex lens of large aperture fails to converge the light rays incident on it to a single point, it is said to
suffer form
a. Chromatic aberration
b. Spherical aberration
c. Both spherical and chromatic
d. Distortion

Two convex lenses of equal focal length ‘f’ are placed in contact, the resultant focal length of the
combination is
a. Zero
b. f
c. 2f
d. f/2

A convex lens of focal length ‘f1’and a concave lens of focal length ‘f2’ are placed in contact. The focal
length of the combination is
a. f2 + f1
b. f2 – f1
c. f1f2/f2+f1
d. f1f2/f1-f2

Final image produced by a compound microscope is
a. Real and inverted
b. Real and erect
c. Virtual and erect
d. Virtual and inverted.

for normal adjustment, length of astronomical telescope is
a. fo + fe
b. fo – fe
c. fo/fe
d. fe/fo

In multimode step index fibre the refractive index of core and cladding is
a. Same
b. Different
c. Zero
d. Different with refractive index of core higher than cladding

Dispersional effect may produced error in light signals. This type of error is minimum in.
a. Single mode step index fibre
b. Multimode step index fibre
c. Multimode graded index fibre
d. Monomode step index fibre

Light signals passes through multimode graded fibre due to .
a. Continuous refraction
b. Total internal reflection
c. Both continuous refraction and total internal reflection
d. Diffraction

Which one type of fibre is more suitable for transmission of signals in which white light is used?
a. Mono mode step index fibre
b. Multi mode step index fibre
c. Multi mode graded index fibre
d. Single mode step index fibre

Critical angle is that incident angle in denser medium for which angle of refraction is.
a. 0
b. 45
c. 90
d. 180

There is no noticeable boundary between core and cladding.
a. Multi mode step index fibre
b. Multi mode graded index fibre
c. Single mode step index fibre
d. All types of fibre

The electrical signals change into light signals for transmission through optical fibre. A light pulse
represent.
a. Zero (0)
b. One (1)
c. Both zero (0) and one (1)
d. Neither zero (0) nor one (1)

A lens, which is thicker at the center and thicker at the edges, is called.
a. Concave lens
b. Convex lens
c. Plano convex lens
d. Plano concave lens

A spectrometer is used to find.
a. Wave length of light
b. Refractive index of the prism
c. Wavelength of different colours
d. None

If a convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is cut into two identical halves along the lens diameter, the focal length
of each half is.
a. f
b. f/2
c. 2f
d. 3f/2

A convex and concave lens of focal length ‘f’ are in contact, the focal length of the combination will be.
a. Zero
b. f/2
c. 2f
d. Infinite


CHEMISTRY MCQs

 


The soul of chemistry is its dealing with
a. Internal structural changes in matter
b. Composition of matter
c. Properties of matter
d. Composition and properties of matter


All of the following statements are incorrect for 20 mol of hydrogen peroxide
except
a. it has 20 mol of hydrogen atoms
b. it has 30 mol of oxygen atoms
c. it has 80 mol of atoms
d. 30 mol of hydrogen atoms


If proton number of two atoms is same then it can be concluded that
a. they are isotopes
b. compounds of both with CI2 will be similar in reactivity towards other
compounds
c. both have same colors
d. both have same melting points


A chemist poured lemon juice on soil, the idea that he may have in his mind is
that
a. there may be a possibility of a chemical reaction
b. lemon juice is dangerous to health
c. lemon juice is dangerous to health
d. water should be preferred over lemon juice for drinking


Dr. Khan has discovered two isotopes of an element with atomic number 119.
The relative abundance of isotopes 119Uue300 and 119Uue305 is 70% and 30%
respectively. The average atomic weight of Uue is

301.5 a.m.u
b. 302.5 a.m.u
c. 303.5 a.m.u
d. 304.5 a.m.u


Which of the following is not related to a.m.u
a. gram
b. kilogram
c. microgram
d. gram/lit


The number of significant figures in 0.00200 is
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. one


All of the following statements are incorrect except
a. precision and accuracy should go side by side in a scientific work
b. scientific work must be precise, accuracy is not essential
c. scientific work must be accurate, precision is not essential
d. +calculations must be made before any experiment


Empirical formula and formula unit of an ionic compound
a. are always similar
b. are always different
c. may be similar or different
d. ionic compounds don’t’ have any empirical formula


Copper (II) oxide is mixed with organic compound during combustion analysis.
The purpose is
a. to carry out complete combustion
b. to reduce the economy of the process
c. to reduce the time for completion of the reaction
d. all of the above


BIOLOGY MCQs

What is the smallest unit of life?

Answer. Cell


What is the main source of energy for human brain?

Answer. Glucose


What is the meaning of virus?

Answer. Poison


The PH of human blood is between:

Answer. 7.4


What is the PH of water?

Answer. 7.0


What is the largest organ inside the human body?

Answer. Skin


What is celluloses?

Answer. Carbohydrates


The smallest of all human cells are?

Answer. RBCs


How many bones are there in adult human body?

Answer. 206


Which of the following plants eat insects?

Answer. Pitcher plant


INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY MCQs

1. Processed data can be called as
A. Information
B. Raw data
C. Knowledge
D. Message
ANSWER: A


2. ____ is a term that encompasses all forms of technology used to create, store, exchange, and use
information in its various forms.
A. Computer Technology
B. Network Technology.
C. Information Technology.
D. Client Server Technology.
ANSWER: C


3. ____ is an electronic device which converts raw data into meaningful information.
A. Computer.
B. Hardware.
C. Software.
D. Compiler.
ANSWER: A


4. _____ is the utilization of technology to improve the realization of office functions
A. Office automation
B. Office PC.
C. Office management.
D. Office records.
ANSWER: A


5. Example of Office automation tools are.
A. Pencil and Pen.
B. File and Rack.
C. Table and Desk.
D. Electronic Mail and Internet System.

ANSWER: D


6. The ___ computers operate by measuring instead of counting
A. personal.
B. client.
C. analog.
D. digital.
ANSWER: C


7. An ____ signal is a continuous variable electromagnetic wave.
A. automatic.
B. analog.
C. electronic.
D. integral.
ANSWER: B


8. The analog computer operates by___.
A. physical devices.
B. softwares.
C. measuring.
D. scaling.
ANSWER: C


9. A computer system is made of.
A. hardware only.
B. software only.
C. hardware and software.
D. hardware or software.
ANSWER: A


10. The most commonly used input devices is.
A. mouse.
B. scanner.
C. keyboard.
D. joystick.
ANSWER: C

PEDAGOGY MCQs


PEDAGOGY MCQs

Different methods of teaching are referred to as

(A)pedagogy

(B)epistemology

(C)metaphysics

(D)philosophy of education


Epistemology is the branch of philosophy that deals with

(A)teaching

(B)learning

(C)knowledge

(D)classroom management


.The Law of Effect is a psychology principle that can be effectively used in

(A) accelerate learning

(B) curriculum development

(C) teaching methods

(D) classroom management


An assessment that is carried out throughout the module of the course is known as

(A) initial assessment

(B) formative assessment

(C) diagnostic assessment

(D) summative assessment


According to Allama Iqbal Aim of the Education is ________?

(A) Development of individual Personality

(B) Development of Family

(C) getting Jobs

(D) None of the above.


Allama Iqbal suggested which subjects should be included in the Curriculum?

(A) Religious Subjects

(B) Social Subjects

(C) History and Science

(D) All of the above..


Allama Iqbal given stress on which method of teaching?

(A) learning by doing

(B) learning by technology

(C) cooperative learning

(D) None of the Above..


System of Education in a country is based on ______?

(A) Development of Individual Personality

(B) Skill Development

(C) Ideology of a Nation

(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Aligarh Muslim University was established in which year?

(A) 1875

(B) 1921

(C) 1935

(D) None of the Above.


Deoband Movement focused more on which type education?

(A) Islamic Education

(B) English System of Education

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above..


Deoband Education System ignored what?

(A) Scientific Education
(B) Religion
(C) Philosophy
(D) None of the Above


M.A.O College was established in which year?
(A) 1873
(B) 1875
(C) 1877
(D) None of the Above.


Scientific Society was Established by Whom?
(A) Allama Iqbal
(B) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(C) Moulvi Abdul Lateef Khan
(D) None of te Above.


Aim of the Scientific Society was to translate ____?
(A) Book of English into Urdu and Hindi
(B) Book of Urdu into English
(C) Both A & B
(D) All of the Above

PEDAGOGY MCQs

 

Policy of Nationalization of Education was first adopted by whom in 1972?
(A) General Zia Ul Haq
(B) Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto
(C) Ayub Khan
(D) None of the above.


Darul Uloom Deoband was established in which year?
(A) 1865
(B) 1866
(C) 1867
(D) All of the above..


Supreme Interest of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan Life was _____?
(A) political reforms
(B) education
(C) independence of Muslim Majority areas
(D) None of the Above..


M.A.O College Initially was a ______?
(A) School
(B) College
(C) University
(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

First Educational Conference held in which city of Pakistan?
(A) Karachi
(B) Lahore
(C) Islamabad
(D) None of the Above.


First Educational Conference in Pakistan held from _____to_____.
(A) 1st November 1947 to 1st December 1947
(B) 10th November 1947 to 1st December 1947
(C) 20th November 1947 to 1st December 1947
(D) None of the Above..


First Educational Conference in Pakistan convened under the supervision of ____?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) Sir Agha Khan
(C) Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(D) None of the Above.


Who was the first Education Minister of Pakistan?
(A) Fazal Ur Rehman
(B) Liaqat Ali Khan
(C) Moulvi Tameez uddin
(D) None of the Above.


Education Minister of Pakistan during his speech on the occasion of first education
conference in 1947 proposed which dimension of education?
(A) Spiritual
(B) Social
(C) Vocational
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of te Above.


Major recommendations given at the end of First Education Conference on 1st
December 1947 were?
(A) Free and Compulsory Education in Pakistan
(B) Education should be teamed with Islamic Values
(C) Emphasis on Science and Technical Education
(D) Both A & B
(E) All of the Above excluding D

PEDAGOGY MCQs

 

Educational Administration is the process of?
(A) Utilizing appropriate resources for the development of Human qualities
(B) Manage Activities of educational institutions
(C) planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in an educational setting
(D) None of the above.


In Educational Management function of planning is ____?
(A) Preparing for the future for desired goals
(B) Financial planning
(C) to appoint staff
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of the above..


In Educational Management function of reporting is/are ___?
(A) Documentation
(B) Record Keeping
(C) Inspection
(D) All of the Above.


In Educational Management function of Coordinating is ______?
(A) Record Keeping
(B) relationship between stack holder
(C) to appoint staff
(D) None of the above.


In Educational Management function of Budgeting is _____?
(A) Financial Planning
(B) accounting
(C) control and expenditure
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of the Above.


Types of Educational Administration are _____.
(A) 2 types
(B) 3 types
(C) 4 types
(D) None of the Above..

PEDAGOGY MCQs

In Educational Administration Autocratic Administration _____?
(A) one person is responsible for running affairs of institution
(B) two persons are responsible for running affairs of institution
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above.


Modern Concept in Educational Administration is ?
(A) Autocratic Administration
(B) Democratic Administration
(C) Laissez Fair Administration
(D) None of the Above.


In Educational Administration Laissez Fair Administration ____?
(A) complete freedom to the group or individual
(B) opinions of all the staff honored
(C) power lye with single person
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of te Above.


Education Supervision Means _____?
(A) assistance in development of teaching learning process
(B) that discipline through which we control affairs of others
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above


 

Systematic way of Doing Things is known as_______ ?
(A) Management
(B) Planning
(C) planning, organizing, directing and controlling
(D) None of the above.


Major responsibility of School Management lies on Whom.
(A) Science Teacher
(B) Vice Principal
(C) Principal
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of the above.


Management is concerned with the administration of _____.
(A) Physical Assets
(B) Financial Resources
(C) Human Resoruces
(D) All of the Above.


From the given options which is lowest level of Management?
(A) Managers
(B) Technicians
(C) Supervisors
(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Management is social as well as ______ process?
(A) technical
(B) educational
(C) thinking
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of the Above.


From the given options which represent heart of management process.
(A) to look into the problem
(B) communication
(C) Organizing
(D) None of the Above.


Which of the following is main source of innovations?
(A) Technology
(B) Research in Education
(C) Human Mind
(D) None of the Above.


Planning for the Institution should be based on _______ ?
(A) Syllabus
(B) Aims and Needs
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Goals of the Organization Should be _____?
(A) Clearly defined
(B) Achievable
(C) Random
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of te Above.


Key to discipline and Control is _______?
(A) Punishment
(B) Motivation
(C) Effective Teaching
(D) Both B & C


 

Classical Conditions was presented by Whom?
(A) B. F. Skinner
(B) Pavlov
(C) Plato
(D) None of the above.


Which Method is used to Study Behavior or Event ?
(A) Experimental Method
(B) Observation Method
(C) Psychological Method
(D) All of the above.


43. Who is the founder of Behaviorism?
(A) J. B. Watson
(B) Aristotle
(C) Maslow
(D) None of the Above.


Behaviorism is the systematic approach to understand the behavior of _____?
(A) Human Beings
(B) Animals
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above.


In which Method we study the step by step growth of a Child?
(A) Experimental Methods
(B) Development Method
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above.


Cognitive Development deals with_____.
(A) Body Parts
(B) Brain Development
(C) Emotions
(D) None of the Above.


The most well known and influential theory of cognitive development was presented by
Whom?
(A) Jeans Piaget
(B) Maslow
(C) B.F. Skinner
(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

According to Piaget Cognitive Development occurs in how many universal stages?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) None of the Above.


Cognition Means____?
4(A) Act of Knowing or perceiving
(B) Act of doing some thing
(C) Act of running or walking
(D) None of te Above.


Which thing bring the permanent change in the behavior as a result of experience ?
(A) Education
(B) learning
(C) Both A & B
(D) All of the Above


 

What is meant by performance test?
(A) Special Ability Test
(B) Online MCQs Test
(C) Written Descriptive Test
(D) None of the above.


Army Alpha test is known as _____?
(A) group test
(B) group study
(C) individual test
(D) None of the above.


Army Beta test is known as _______?
(A) individual test
(B) individual mcqs test
(C) group test
(D) None of the Above.


Standardized Test are commonly known as _______?
(A) Criterion referenced
(B) Norm-referenced
(C) Norm-Criterion referenced
(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Important characteristics of standardized test are ?
(A) reliability and Accuracy
(B) reliability and practicality
(C) Accuracy and practicality
(D) None of the Above.


Reliability is _______?
(A) quality of test results
(B) consistency of test results
(C) Hypothetical estimation
(D) None of the Above.


Best methods of the evaluation of the personality is _________?
(A) Survey Test
(B) Inventory Test
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above.


Last National Educational Policy of Pakistan was implemented in ________?
(A) 1971

(B) 2009
(C) 2017
(D) None of the Above.


In which year United Nations Organization Proclaimed “the right to learn” for
children?
(A) 20 November 1959
(B) 20 November 1960
(C) 20 November 1961
(D) None of te Above.


Evidence of Validity can be related to _________ ?
(A) Construct
(B) Content
(C) Criterion
(D) All of the Above


 

Guidance refers to ___.
(A) An advice provided by superior to resolve problem
(B) A professional advice provided by Counselor in overcoming from personal or Psychological
problems
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above.


Counseling refers to ___ .
(A) A Professional advice by Counselor
(B) An Advice by Elder
(C) Both A & B
(D) All of the above.


Which of the following is not the type of counseling?
(A) Marriage and Family Counseling
(B) Mental Health Counseling
(C) Substance Abuse Counseling
(D) Above All are types of Counselling
(E) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

What does a school Counselor do?
(A) helping students in their academic goals
(B) helping students in social and personal development
(C) helping students in their career development
(D) All of the Above
(E) None of the above.


Guidance is a process of _____.
(A) to give advice to the child
(B) teaching English to the Child
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above.


In Probing or Questioning from the Counselor enables what?
(A) to help students to move forward in helping process
(B) investigate other parts of his or her story
(C) Counselor can be with students physically or psychologically
(D) None of the Above.


The main aim of educational guidance is________.
(A) Pupil Development
(B) To Solve the Problems
(C) Improvement of Curriculum
(D) None of the Above.


A school Counselor works in_____
(A) Primary , Middle and High Schools
(B) In Colleges
(C) In Universities
(D) None of the Above.


Main objective of educational guidance is to bring what change in the pupil____.
(A) Psychological Development of the child
(B) responsibility of self direction
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of te Above.


Name the person who is credited with Guidance Movement ?
(A) Einstein
(B) George Washington
(C) Frank Parsons
(D) All of the Above


 

According to Allama Iqbal Aim of the Education is ________?

(A) Development of individual Personality (ANS)

(B) Development of Family

(C) getting Jobs

(D) None of the above.


Allama Iqbal suggested which subjects should be included in the Curriculum?

(A) Religious Subjects

(B) Social Subjects

(C) History and Science

(D) All of the above. (ANS)

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Allama Iqbal given stress on which method of teaching?

(A) learning by doing (ANS)

(B) learning by technology

(C) cooperative learning

(D) None of the Above.


System of Education in a country is based on ______?

(A) Development of Individual Personality

(B) Skill Development

(C) Ideology of a Nation (ANS)

(D) None of the above.


Aligarh Muslim University was established in which year?

(A) 1875

(B) 1921 (ANS)

(C) 1935

(D) None of the Above.


Deoband Movement focused more on which type education?

(A) Islamic Education (ANS)

(B) English System of Education

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Deoband Education System ignored what?

(A) Scientific Education (ANS)

(B) Religion

(C) Philosophy

(D) None of the Above.


M.A.O College was established in which year?

(A) 1873

(B) 1875 (ANS)

(C) 1877

(D) None of the Above.


Scientific Society was Established by Whom?

(A) Allama Iqbal

(B) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (ANS)

(C) Molvi Abdul Lateef Khan

(D) None of the Above.


Aim of the Scientific Society was to translate ____?

(A) Book of English into Urdu and Hindi (ANS)

(B) Book of Urdu into English

(C) Both A & B

(D) All of the Above

PEDAGOGY MCQs

 

Policy of Nationalization of Education was first adopted by whom in 1972?

(A) General Zia Ul Haq

(B) Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto (ANS)

(C) Ayub Khan

(D) None of the above.


Darul Uloom Deoband was established in which year?

(A) 1865

(B) 1866 (ANS)

(C) 1867

(D) All of the above.


Supreme Interest of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan Life was _____?

(A) political reforms

(B) education (ANS)

(C) independence of Muslim Majority areas

(D) None of the Above.


M.A.O College Initially was a ______?

(A) School (ANS)

(B) College

(C) University

(D) None of the above.


First Educational Conference held in which city of Pakistan?

(A) Karachi (ANS)

(B) Lahore

(C) Islamabad

(D) None of the Above.


First Educational Conference in Pakistan held from _____to_____.

(A) 1st November 1947 to 1st December 1947

(B) 10th November 1947 to 1st December 1947

(C) 20th November 1947 to 1st December 1947 (ANS)

(D) None of the Above.


First Educational Conference in Pakistan convened under the supervision of ____?

(A) Liaqat Ali Khan

(B) Sir Agha Khan

(C) Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah (ANS)

(D) None of the Above.


Who was the first Education Minister of Pakistan?

(A) Fazal Ur Rehman (ANS)

(B) Liaqat Ali Khan

(C) Molvi Tameez uddin

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Education Minister of Pakistan during his speech on the occasion of first education conference in 1947 proposed which dimension of education?

(A) Spiritual

(B) Social (ANS)

(C) Vocational

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the Above.


Major recommendations given at the end of First Education Conference on 1st December 1947 were?

(A) Free and Compulsory Education in Pakistan (ANS)

(B) Education should be teamed with Islamic Values

(C) Emphasis on Science and Technical Education

(D) Both A & B

(E) All of the Above excluding D


 

Planning and Management in Educations MCQs Set 1

Educational Administration is the process of?

(A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities

(B) Manage Activities of educational institutions (ANS)

(C) planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting

(D) None of the above.


In Educational Management function of planning is ____?

(A) Preparing for future for desired goals (ANS)

(B) Financial planning

(C) to appoint staff

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the above.


In Educational Management function of reporting is/are ___?

(A) Documentation

(B) Record Keeping

(C) Inspection

(D) All of the Above. (ANS)


In Educational Management function of Coordinating is ______?

(A) Record Keeping

(B) relationship between stack holder (ANS)

(C) to appoint staff

(D) None of the above.


In Educational Management function of Budgeting is _____?

(A) Financial Planning

(B) accounting

(C) control and expenditure

(D) All of the Above (ANS)

(E) None of the Above.


Types of Educational Administration are _____.

(A) 2 types

(B) 3 types (ANS)

(C) 4 types

(D) None of the Above.


In Educational Administration Autocratic Administration _____?

(A) one person is responsible for running affairs of institution (ANS)

(B) two persons are responsible for running affairs of institution

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Modern Concept in Educational Administration is ?

(A) Autocratic Administration

(B) Democratic Administration (ANS)

(C) Laissez Fair Administration

(D) None of the Above.


In Educational Administration Laissez Fair Administration ____?

(A) complete freedom to the group or individual (ANS)

(B) opinions of all the staff honored

(C) power lye with single person

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the Above.


Education Supervision Means _____?

(A) assistance in development of teaching learning process

(B) that discipline through which we control affairs of others

(C) Both A & B(ANS)

(D) None of the above


 

Classical Conditions was presented by Whom?

(A) B. F. Skinner

(B) Pavlov (ANS)

(C) Plato

(D) None of the above.


 

Which Method is used to Study Behavior or Event?

(A) Experimental Method

(B) Observation Method (ANS)

(C) Psychological Method

(D) All of the above.


Who is the founder of Behaviorism?

(A) J. B. Watson (ANS)

(B) Aristotle

(C) Maslow

(D) None of the Above.


Behaviorism is the systematic approach to understand the behavior of _____?

(A) Human Beings

(B) Animals

(C) Both A & B (ANS)

(D) None of the above.


In which Method we study the step by step growth of a Child?

(A) Experimental Methods

(B) Development Method (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Cognitive Development deals with_____.

(A) Body Parts

(B) Brain Development (ANS)

(C) Emotions

(D) None of the Above.


The most well-known and influential theory of cognitive development was presented by Whom?

(A) Jeans Piaget (ANS)

(B) Maslow

(C) B.F. Skinner

(D) None of the Above.


According to Piaget Cognitive Development occurs in how many universal stages?

(A) 3

(B) 4 (ANS)

(C) 5

(D) None of the Above.


Cognition Means____?

(A) Act of Knowing or perceiving (ANS)

(B) Act of doing something

(C) Act of running or walking

(D) None of the Above.


Which thing bring the permanent change in the behavior as a result of experience?

(A) Education

(B) learning (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) All of the Above


 

Important Factor of Curriculum is to achieve the?

(A) values

(B) Education

(C) Objectives (ANS)

(D) None of the above.


What is meant by Curriculum?

(A) Course Outline

(B) Syllabus of the subject

(C) Overall activities in the Institution (ANS)

(D) All of the above.


Nature of the Curriculum is ______?

(A) Creative

(B) Critical

(C) Conservative

(D) All of the Above (ANS)


Who is responsible for Curriculum Planning and Development in Pakistan? (A) Federal Education Ministry

(B) Curriculum Wing (ANS)

(C) Text Book Boards

(D) None of the above.


What is meant by Mini culture?

(A) Classroom (ANS)

(B) Education Department

(C) University

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Syllabus is the part of what?

(A) Book

(B) Curriculum (ANS)

(C) School

(D) None of the Above.


Outline of the content is ______?

(A) Syllabus (ANS)

(B) Course Outline

(C) Curriculum

(D) None of the Above.


Scope of Curriculum includes?

(A) All the Program of Activities

(B) All the Program of Studies

(C) All the Program of Guidance

(D) All of the Above (ANS)


Important Components of the curriculum?

(A) intended outcomes

(B) manner of implementation

(C) what is taught

(D) All of the Above (ANS)

(E) None of the Above.


Type of Curriculum?

(A) Explicit (Stated Curriculum

(B) Hidden (Unofficial Curriculum)

(C) Absent or Null (Excluded Curriculum)

(D) All of the Above (ANS)


 

Components of a curriculum is /are ___?

(A) Teaching Strategy

(B) Objectives

(C) Evaluation

(D) All of the Above (ANS)

(E) None of the above.


Name the committee which is responsible for finalization Curriculum for Secondary Level?

(A) Provincial Curriculum Wing Committee

(B) National Curriculum Committee (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the above.


Number of the basic components of a Curriculum are ____?

(A) 4 (ANS)

(B) 12

(C) 24

(D) All of the Above.


How the Effectiveness of the Curriculum is determined?

(A) Objectives

(B) Evaluation (ANS)

(C) Economics

(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

From the given options which one is the component of a curriculum?

(A) Design

(B) Evaluation (ANS)

(C) Implementation

(D) None of the Above.


An Educational System depends on What to systematize and execute the process of Education?

(A) Syllabus

(B) Curriculum (ANS)

(C) Course

(D) None of the Above.


A plan of action for preparing a curriculum is _________?

(A) Elements of Curriculum

(B) Curriculum Design (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.


The problem being faced in Curriculum Development in Pakistan is?

(A) Less no of trained teachers

(B) Insufficient financial resources

(C) Lack of buildings

(D) All of the Above. (ANS)


Major functions of all Text Book Boards in Pakistan?

(A) Printing Curriculum

(B) Printing Books (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.


 

West Pakistan Text Book Board was established in?

(A) July 1961

(B) July 1962 (ANS)

(C) July 1963

(D) All of the Above

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Educational Guidance and Counseling MCQs Set 1

Guidance refers to ___.

(A) An advice provided by superior to resolve problem

(B) A professional advice provided by Counselor in overcoming from personal or Psychological problems (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the above.


Counseling refers to ___.

(A) A Professional advice by Counselor (ANS)

(B) An Advice by Elder

(C) Both A & B

(D) All of the above.


Which of the following is not the type of counseling?

(A) Marriage and Family Counseling

(B) Mental Health Counseling

(C) Substance Abuse Counseling

(D) Above All are types of Counselling (ANS)

(E) None of the Above.


What does a school Counselor do?

(A) helping students in their academic goals

(B) helping students in social and personal development

(C) helping students in their career development

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the above. (ANS)


Guidance is a process of _____.

(A) to give advice to the child (ANS)

(B) teaching English to the Child

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.


In Probing or Questioning from the Counselor enables what?

(A) to help students to move forward in helping process (ANS)

(B) investigate other parts of his or her story

(C) Counselor can be with students physically or psychologically

(D) None of the Above.


The main aim of educational guidance is________.

(A) Pupil Development (ANS)

(B) To Solve the Problems

(C) Improvement of Curriculum

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

A school Counselor works in_____

(A) Primary, Middle and High Schools (ANS)

(B) In Colleges

(C) In Universities

(D) None of the Above.


Main objective of educational guidance is to bring what change in the pupil____.

(A) Psychological Development of the child

(B) responsibility of self-direction

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.


 

Name the person who is credited with Guidance Movement?

(A) Einstein

(B) George Washington

(C) Frank Parsons (ANS)

(D) All of the Above


Systematic way of Doing Things is known as_______ ?

(A) Management (ANS)

(B) Planning

(C) planning, organizing, directing and controlling

(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Major responsibility of School Management lies on Whom.

(A) Science Teacher

(B) Vice Principal

(C) Principal (ANS)

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the above..


Management is concerned with the administration of _____.

(A) Physical Assets

(B) Financial Resources

(C) Human Resources

(D) All of the Above. (ANS)


From the given options which is lowest level of Management?

(A) Managers

(B) Technicians

(C) Supervisors (ANS)

(D) None of the above.


Management is social as well as ______ process?

(A) technical (ANS)

(B) educational

(C) thinking

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the Above.


From the given options which represent heart of management process.

(A) to look into the problem

(B) communication (ANS)

(C) Organizing

(D) None of the Above.


Which of the following is main source of innovations?

(A) Technology

(B) Research in Education

(C) Human Mind (ANS)

(D) None of the Above.


Planning for the Institution should be based on _______?

(A) Syllabus

(B) Aims and Needs (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Goals of the Organization Should be _____?

(A) Clearly defined

(B) Achievable (ANS)

(C) Random

(D) All of the Above

(E) None of the Above.


 

Key to discipline and Control is _______?

(A) Punishment

(B) Motivation

(C) Effective Teaching

(D) Both B & C (ANS)


What is meant by performance test?

(A) Special Ability Test (ANS)

(B) Online MCQs Test

(C) Written Descriptive Test

(D) None of the above.


Army Alpha test is known as _____?

(A) group test

(B) group study

(C) individual test (ANS)

(D) None of the above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

Army Beta test is known as _______?

(A) individual test (ANS)

(B) individual mcqs test

(C) group test

(D) None of the Above.


Standardized Test are commonly known as _______?

(A) Criterion referenced

(B) Norm-referenced (ANS)

(C) Norm-Criterion referenced

(D) None of the above.


Important characteristics of standardized test are?

(A) reliability and Accuracy (ANS)

(B) reliability and practicality

(C) Accuracy and practicality

(D) None of the Above.


Reliability is _______?

(A) quality of test results

(B) consistency of test results (ANS)

(C) Hypothetical estimation

(D) None of the Above.


Best methods of the evaluation of the personality is _________?

(A) Survey Test

(B) Inventory Test (ANS)

(C) Both A & B

(D) None of the Above.


Last National Educational Policy of Pakistan was implemented in ________?

(A) 1971

(B) 2009

(C) 2017 (ANS)

(D) None of the Above.


In which year United Nations Organization Proclaimed “the right to learn” for children?

(A) 20 November 1959

(B) 20 November 1960

(C) 20 November 1961 (ANS)

(D) None of the Above.

PEDAGOGY MCQs

 

Evidence of Validity can be related to _________?

(A) Construct

(B) Content

(C) Criterion

(D) All of the Above (ANS)


Pedagogy is the study of——?

A. Education

B. Teaching Methods (Answer)

C. Learning Process

D. Guiding Students


In Pedagogy computer is used to——?

A. To motivate the learner

B. To provide feedback

C. To interact with the learner

D. For all the above (Answer)


Most important work of teacher is——?

A. to organize teaching work (Answer)

B. to evaluate the students

C. to deliver lecture in class

D. to take care of children

PEDAGOGY MCQs

The word “Pedagogy” means?

A. to understand the child

B. to guide the child

C. to lead the child (Answer)

D. to educate the child


Teachers should present information to the students clearly and in interesting way, and relate this new information to the things students:

A. don’t know

B. already know (Answer)

C. willing to know

D. not willing to know


The field of study concerned with the construction of thought processes, including remembering, problem solving, and decision-making is called——?

A. Education

B. Pedagogy

C. Cognitive Development (Answer)

D. Epistemology


The more parts of your brain you use, the more likely you are to —– information.

A. use

B. miss

C. misuse

D. retain (Answer)

PEDAGOGY MCQs

The process of reasoning from one or more given statements to reach a logically certain conclusion is called——?

A. Deductive Reasoning (Answer)

B. Inductive Reasoning

C. Qualitative Reasoning

D. Quantitative Reasoning


 

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