Business and Management MCQs

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

1. The Insurance is referred as——-.
A. . Contract
B. .Uncertainty
C. Peril
D. Hazard
ANSWER: A

2. ——– refers to distribution of insurance products through
A. Bank
B. Company
C. Co-operatives
D. Sole trader
ANSWER: A

3. The cause of loss or a contingency that may cause a loss due to nature is known as———
A. Hazard
B. Peril
C. Risk
D. Uncertinity
ANSWER: B

4. The agreement refers to ———–.
A. Offer
B. Acceptance
C. Free Consent
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

5. The premium implies ______
A. Consideration by Service
B. Consideration by cash
C. Consideration by Kind
D. Speculative Cash
ANSWER: B

6. The risk which directly affects the individual’s capability to earn income is called———–
A. Personal Risk
B. Risk Financing
C. Risk Retention
D. Risk Sharing
ANSWER: A

7. Losses arising due to a risk exposure retained or assured is known as————-
A. Risk Reduction
B. Risk Financing
C. Risk Retention
D. Risk Sharing
ANSWER: C

8. A person who dislikes risk is known as ——–
A. Risk lover
B. Risk Averse
C. Risk Neutral
D. Insurer
ANSWER: B

9. Risk Management process includes————
A. Risk Analysis
B. Risk Control
C. Risk Analysis and Control
D. Risk Reduction
ANSWER: C

10. A risk manager should report to———-
A. Managing Director
B. Company Secretary
C. Supervisor
D. General Manager
ANSWER: C

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

11. An alternative approach to the check list is———–
A. Threat Analysis
B. Event Analysis
C. Operability Study
D. Minimum Level Analysis
ANSWER: A

12. The System that brings together the operative causes of perils is——
A. Risk Evaluation
B. Safety Audit
C. Risk Financing
D. Fault Tree Analysis
ANSWER: B

13. Type of Risk Management are———
A. Risk Retention, Risk Analysis and Risk Financing.
B. Risk Analysis,Risk Control and Risk Financing
C. Risk Control, Risk Retention and Risk Avoidance
D. Risk Analysis,Risk Control,Risk Financing
ANSWER: D

14. The foundation for risk Management is provided by—–
A. Risk Control
B. Risk Analysis
C. Risk Identification
D. Risk Retention
ANSWER: C

15. The Risk Evaluation breaks into two parts.They are———–
A. The cause of loss and its affects
B. The probability of loss occurring and its severity
C. The loss due to any reasons
D. The risk and return
ANSWER: B

16. The main aim of risk Financing is to——–
A. Control the risk
B. Avoid the Risk
C. Spread the Risk
D. Financing the Risk
ANSWER: C

17. The measures aimed at avoiding,eliminating or reducing the chances of loss production is covered by——–
A. Risk Control
B. Risk Retention
C. Risk Avoidance
D. Risk Financing
ANSWER: A

18. The two Aspects of risk Managers are———-
A. Record keeping and reporting of the activities
B. Maintaining accounts and reporting.
C. Carry out analysis and control.
D. Marketing.
ANSWER: A

19. The Risks which have some financial impact from the part of risk management are—————
A. Dynamic and Speculative Risk
B. Pure and Speculative Risk
C. Pure and Static Risk
D. Personal and Static Risk
ANSWER: B

20. Insurance is a risk management technique involving
A. Risk Retention
B. Risk Avoidance
C. Loss Control
D. Risk Transfer
ANSWER: D

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

21. The claim amount received from insurer are treated as —————-.
A. Nontaxable Income
B. TaxableGain
C. Gains
D. Reserve
ANSWER: B

22. Insurance is best suited to risk with————-.
A. high frequency and low loss severity.
B. low frequency and high loss severity.
C. minimum frequency and no loss severity.
D. high frequency and high loss severity.
ANSWER: B

23. The condition for insurable interest is———–.
A. Loss should be sufficiently in monetary terms.
B. Loss potential should be sufficiently large.
C. Interest on the subject matter of the insurance.
D. Loss cannot be managed.
ANSWER: C

24. The measures aimed at avoiding, eliminating or reducing the chances of loss producing events is covered by————-.
A. Risk Avoidance
B. Risk Control.
C. Risk Evaluation
D. Risk Financing
ANSWER: B

25. Restoring a policy holder to his pre-loss financial position means—————.
A. Contribution
B. Indemnity
C. Goodwill
D. LiquidAsset
ANSWER: B

26. Franchise and aggregate excess of loss are two variations of—————.
A. Coinsurance
B. Excess of Loss
C. First Loss
D. Proximate Cause
ANSWER: B

27. The type of reinsurance that forms individual large losses of risk is called as————–.
A. Proportional quota share.
B. Excess of loss per event basis.
C. Stop loss.
D. Facultative
ANSWER: A

28. The risk manager maybe able to identify the new ventures involved in —————-.
A. Pure risk.
B. Group Risk.
C. Speculative risk.
D. Particular risk.
ANSWER: A

29. Identification of sources of hazard will have to be done by the——————-.
A. Production manager.
B. Risk manager
C. Finance manager.
D. General manager.
ANSWER: A

30. ____ are the risk management methods
A. Insurance
B. Hedging
C. Derivatives
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

31. The risk management which refers to the identification of pure risk faced by an individual or family is—————-.
A. Corporate
B. Individual.
C. Joint Stock Companies
D. Partnership Firm.
ANSWER: B

32. An instrument by which a pure risk is transferred by a party other than insurer is
A. Insurance
B. Retention.
C. Non Insurance Transfer.
D. Reinsurance.
ANSWER: C

33. Having money available when it is needed is defined as the art of——————.
A. Financial management.
B. Risk management.
C. Contingency fund.
D. Surplus
ANSWER: A

34. The expected value of losses varies directly with the ——————.
A. time period.
B. financial period.
C. fixed period.
D. fluctuating period.
ANSWER: A

35. Organisations are mainly concerned with managing
A. Pure Risk
B. Speculative Risk
C. Personal Risk
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

36. The strategy pursued by the business firms to tackle risk by spreading into a number of business is————-.
A. Diversification.
B. Centralisation.
C. Risk Retention
D. Financing.
ANSWER: A

37. The 5th chapter of Factories Act deals with————-.
A. Safety
B. Welfare
C. The Inspecting Staff
D. Marketing Manager
ANSWER: B

38. The Person whose risk is insured is called _________.
A. Insured
B. merchandiser
C. marketer
D. Agents
ANSWER: A

39. Risk management is concerned with————-.
A. Planning.
B. Arranging and controlling of activities
C. Managing of funds
D. Planning, arranging and controlling of activities.
ANSWER: D

40. The number of elements of uncertainty in most type of events are —————.
A. Three
B. Two
C. One
D. Five
ANSWER: B

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

41. Dynamic risks are closely related to —————.
A. Speculative risks.
B. Static Risks
C. Personal Risks
D. Particular
ANSWER: A

42. That which take advantage to the law of large numbers is —————-.
A. Risk retention.
B. Combination.
C. Hedging.
D. Inflation.
ANSWER: B

43. That which is designed to improve the information on which decisions are take to reduce risk is——————-.
A. Transfer
B. Research.
C. Costs.
D. Deflation.
ANSWER: B

44. In order to minimize the impact of uncertain events risk management is concerned with planning arranging and controlling of——————-.
A. Men and Material
B. Resources and Market
C. Activities and Resources
D. Men and Activities
ANSWER: B

45. A firm may seek to minimize marketing risks by undertaking —————.
A. Credit Facilities
B. Training Salesmen
C. Market Research
D. Branch Expansion
ANSWER: C

46. In alike the risk of creditors and shareholders by High Capital Gearing ratio companies is—————.
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Government
D. Management and Employees
ANSWER: A

47. Personnel risk in a firm depends upon the ability integrity and enthusiasm of—————.
A. Creditors
B. Debtors
C. Government
D. Management and Employees
ANSWER: D

48. Uncertain events are broadly classified as ——————-.
A. Predictable and Unpredictable.
B. Possible and Impossible
C. Natural and Artificial.
D. Rare and Continuous
ANSWER: A

49. Fire insurance can be taken in respect of —————-.
A. movable properties only.
B. immovable properties.
C. movable and immovable.
D. persons only
ANSWER: C

50. Except life assurance the maximum term of other insurance is————–.
A. twelve months.
B. twenty four months.
C. six months
D. thirty six months
ANSWER: A

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

51. The principles of indemnity does not apply to—————-.
A. Burglary insurance
B. Fire insurance.
C. Marine insurance.
D. Life and Personal Accident insurance.
ANSWER: D

52. The number of prime elements of risk analysis is—————.
A. one
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
ANSWER: B

53. That which are not independent parts of the whole risk management process are————–.
A. Risk Control and Risk Financing
B. Risk Retention and Risk Analysis
C. Risk Retention and Risk Financing
D. Risk Analysis and Risk Control.
ANSWER: A

54. The possibility that actual results may differ from predicted results is known as_________________.
A. Risk.
B. Uncertainty.
C. Peril.
D. Hazards.
ANSWER: A

55. The situation of doubt in mind about the happening or not happening of anything in future because of lack of knowledge————-.
A. Risk.
B. Uncertainty.
C. Loss.
D. Hazards.
ANSWER: B

56. The risk that arises because of magnitude of cash flow due to change in output and input prices is known as————-.
A. Credit risk.
B. Particular risk
C. Business risk
D. Price risk
ANSWER: D

57. The identification analysis and economic control of those risk which can threaten the assets or earning capacity of an enterprise is known as————–.
A. Business Management
B. Risk Management
C. Financial Management
D. Strategic Management
ANSWER: B

58. The success of whole process of risk management depends on its————-.
A. Identification.
B. Risk analysis.
C. Assessment of risk.
D. Evaluation of risk.
ANSWER: A

59. That which helps to determine the accuracy and relevance of risk at each stage to which an organization is exposed is known as———–.
A. Principle of Identification
B. Principle of Risk Analysis.
C. Principle of Assessment Risk.
D. Principle of Corrective Decision.
ANSWER: B

60. Transfer of risk to other party is done through———-.
A. Reduction.
B. Control.
C. Retention
D. Insurance.
ANSWER: D

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

61. Cost of risk has the following components————-.
A. Cost of Expected Losses and Cost of Control of Loss.
B. Cost of Expected Losses and Cost of Loss Financing
C. Cost of Control of Loss and Cost of Loss Financing.
D. Cost of Expected Loss, Cost of Control of Loss Cost of Financing, Cost of Residual Uncertainity
ANSWER: D

62. The cost of increased precautions and limits on risky activity to reduce the frequency and severity of accidents and losses is covered by—————.
A. Cost of Loss Financing.
B. Cost of Expected Losses
C. Cost of Control of Loss.
D. Cost of Internal Risk Reduction.
ANSWER: C

63. That which covers the cost of self insurance, loading in insurance premiums and enforcing hedging arrangements is————-.
A. Cost of Loss Financing.
B. Cost of Control of loss
C. Cost of Residual Uncertainty.
D. Cost of Internal Risk Reduction.
ANSWER: A

64. The uncertainty reduced through diversification and investing in information is known as —————.
A. Cost of Residual Uncertainty.
B. Cost of Loss Financing
C. Cost of Loss Control.
D. Cost of Internal Risk Reduction
ANSWER: D

65. The cost of uncertainty that remains once the firm has selected and implemented loss control loss financing and internal risk reduction is called——————.
A. Cost of Residual Uncertainty.
B. Cost of Expected Losses
C. Cost of Price Change.
D. Cost of Loss Control.
ANSWER: A

66. If RMIS has the problem of incompatibility of software then the remedy is to provide—————-.
A. solid vendor account team.
B. internal access to system expert.
C. clear and comprehensive specifications
D. financial check. ANSWER: C

67. If RMIS has poor system documentation then the remedy is to provide————–.
A. solid vendor account team.
B. internal access to system expert.
C. assessment in proper manner.
D. clear and comprehensive specifications.
ANSWER: C

68. If impurity of data is the problem that RMIS is showing then provide————-.
A. clear and comprehensive specifications.
B. solid vendor account team.
C. reference checks, including on-site.
D. assessment in proper manner.
ANSWER: C

69. If RMIS shows lack of service then you need to provide————–.
A. reference checks including on site.
B. assessment in proper manner.
C. financial check .
D. standard software configuration.
ANSWER: C

70. To avoid RMIS being obsolete provide————–.
A. solid vendor account team.
B. internal access to system expert.
C. standard software configuration
D. clear and comprehensive specifications
ANSWER: C

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

71. If RMIS shows inflexibility of system then provide————-.
A. solid vendor account team.
B. clear and comprehensive specifications
C. internal access to system expert.
D. standard software configuration.
ANSWER: C

72. The risk management can be done by——————.
A. Insurance.
B. Hedging.
C. Derivatives.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

73. Risk management information is not useful in one of the following—————-.
A. Reporting.
B. Hedging.
C. Claim adjustment process reviews
D. Derivatives.
ANSWER: B

74. The methods of risk management are——————.
A. Loss Control.
B. Loss Financing.
C. Internal Risk Reduction.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

75. The routine medical check up during a year is an example of——————.
A. Loss prevention
B. Loss reduction.
C. Risk avoidance
D. Retention.
ANSWER: A

76. The installation of heat or smoke activated sprinkler systems that are designed to minimize fire damage in the outbreak of a fire is an example of——————.
A. Loss prevention
B. Loss reduction.
C. Hedging.
D. Insurance.
ANSWER: B

77. The process of reducing the level of risky activities firstly affect the frequency of losses is the strategy
of———–.
A. Risk avoidance.
B. Retention
C. Hedging.
D. Other contractual risk transfer.
ANSWER: A

78. Which of the following is the last step in risk management process———-.
A. Insurance.
B. Review.
C. Risk evaluation.
D. Loss prevention.
ANSWER: A

79. Which of the following helps in risk improvement?
A. Fire brigade.
B. Salvage corps.
C. Engineers who survey property to be insured.
D. Ambulance.
ANSWER: C

80. Which of the statements is correct?
a. Insurance is a transfer of risk mechanism.
b. Insurance gives physical protection to assets.

A. Statement A.
B. Statement B.
C. Both the statements.
D. Neither of the statements
ANSWER: A

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

81. Which of the statements is correct?
a. The simplest way to deal with a risk to avoid it.
b. This technique is always possible and practical.

A. Statement A.
B. Statement B.
C. Both the statements.
D. Neither of the statements
ANSWER: D

82. ________ is the extra payment done for administrative and capital cost.
A. Premium
B. Premium loading.
C. Interest.
D. Contingency.
ANSWER: B

83. The insurance plays a role in the economic development of the country in the following ways——————.
A. Releases capital for new investments.
B. The job potential increases.
C. Money collected is invested in infrastructure
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

84. A complete proposal form contains information about______________.
A. Moral hazard.
B. Physical hazard.
C. Personal history of proposer and identify of the property insurance.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: B

85. The Principle of Indemnity does not apply to_______________.
A. Burglary Insurance.
B. Fire Insurance
C. Marine Insurance
D. Life and personal accident insurance.
ANSWER: D

86. Transfer of rights and remedies of the insured to the insurer after indemnity has been effected is called __________.
A. Insurable interest.
B. Subrogation
C. Proximate clause.
D. Money back policy.
ANSWER: B

87. Malhotra Commitee was appointed in
A. 1993
B. 1994
C. 1999.
D. 2000
ANSWER: A

88. Insurance is based on the principle of _______.
A. co-operation.
B. Democracy
C. Equality
D. welfare
ANSWER: A

89. This policy covers all risks to the ship and its cargo while the ship is at a particular port __________.
A. Voyage policy
B. Floating policy
C. Time policy
D. Portrisk Policy
ANSWER: D

90. Fire insurance can be taken in respect of __________
A. movable property only
B. immovable property only
C. both movable and immovable properties
D. persons only
ANSWER: C

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

91. The principle of indemnity is applicable to _______ only.
A. Life Insurance
B. Personal accident insurance
C. Proximate Cause
D. Property insurance
ANSWER: D

92. Except life assurance the maximum term of other insurance is _________.
A. 12 months
B. 24 months
C. 6 months
D. 36 months
ANSWER: A

93. The person who agrees to compensate the loss arising from the risk is called the _____.
A. Insurer
B. Assurer
C. Underwriter
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

94. __________ policy matures on the assured death or on his attainment of a particular age whichever occurs earlier.
A. Endowment.
B. Money back.
C. Joint life
D. Single premium.
ANSWER: A

95. _______ is an agreement where by the insurer agrees to indemnity the insured against marine losses.
A. Life insurance
B. Fire insurance.
C. Marine insurance.
D. Public liability insurance.
ANSWER: C

96. ______ is those terms, which are implied in every contract of marine insurance unless they are expressly excluded.
A. Guarantee
B. Express Warranties
C. Implied Warranties
D. Waiver Clause
ANSWER: C

97. _______ are those terms, which are written on the policy.
A. Express Warranties
B. Implied Warranties
C. Memorandum Warranties
D. Valuation Clause
ANSWER: A

98. Notice of abandonment is necessary in the case of ______.
A. Actual loss.
B. Constructive total loss.
C. Partial total loss.
D. Minimum loss.
ANSWER: B

99. When the subject matter insured is destroyed wholly refers to ________.
A. Partial loss.
B. Actual total loss.
C. Constructive total loss.
D. Maximum loss.
ANSWER: B

100. RiskManagement is a subject which falls under_____________.
A. production
B. HR
C. marketing
D. finance
ANSWER: D

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

101. _______ policy issued on the basis of the number of persons assured.
A. Annuity policy.
B. Multiple life policy.
C. Single life policy.
D. Level of premium policy.
ANSWER: B

102. Assignment of life policy means _________.
A. Transferring rights to the assignee.
B. Policy holder is entitled to the paid up value.
C. Paid up value is always higher than surrender value.
D. Value payable on assured death or maturity.
ANSWER: A

103. ________ means a willful and intentional act on part of the self-destroyed.
A. Death
B. Suicide
C. Murder
D. Accident
ANSWER: B

104. A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealing with a third person refers to ________.
A. Principal
B. Employee
C. Agent
D. Development Officer
ANSWER: C

105. Marine perils is also called as _______.
A. Perils of the Sea
B. Moral Hazards
C. MarineClause
D. Marinelaws
ANSWER: A

106. _______ policy is which covers the risk during all situations.
A. Floating.
B. Wagering
C. Valued
D. Mixed
ANSWER: D

107. Risk insured against death is a contract of ________.
A. Assurance.
B. Agreement.
C. Indemnity
D. Caveat Emptor
ANSWER: A

108. Which of the following contract is not legally enforceable?
A. Contract of insurance.
B. Wagering contract.
C. Contract of sale of goods.
D. Contract of business.
ANSWER: B

110. ________ is a document which provides evidence of the contract of insurance
A. Proposal form.
B. Policy form.
C. Cover note.
D. Certificate of insurance.
ANSWER: B

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

111. ___________ provides evidence of insurance to the policies and Registration Authorities under Motor Vehicle Act.
A. Cover note.
B. Endorsements.
C. Certificate of insurance.
D. Policy form.
ANSWER: C

112. The term Assurance refers to ________.
A. Life Insurance Business.
B. Marine Insurance Business.
C. Fire Insurance Business.
D. Motor Vehicle Business.
ANSWER: A

113. Which of the statments are true?
A. Loss prevention and loss reduction mean different things
B. Risk may be transfered by contract
C. Both the statements
D. Neither is correct
ANSWER: C

114. The risk which arises because of change in major economic, social, cultural and political factors are————–.
A. ParticularRisk
B. Fundamental Risk
C. Speculative Risk
D. Dynamic Risk
ANSWER: B

115. Insurance is a risk management technique involving————-.
A. Risktransfer
B. Riskretention
C. Riskavoidance
D. Losscontrol
ANSWER: A

116. The first step in risk management process is —————-.
A. Riskavoidance
B. RiskIdentification
C. Insurance
D. RiskEvaluation
ANSWER: B

117. Which of the following steps in the risk management process helps in determining sum insured under policies?
A. Risk identification.
B. Risk Retention.
C. Risk Evaluation
D. Risk Transfer.
ANSWER: C

118. When an event is stated to be possible, it has a probability between————–.
A. Zero and One
B. Zero or One.
C. None of these.
D. Both of the above.
ANSWER: A

119. If the most impossible event is assigned a value of zero, then most inevitable event is assigned a value——————.
A. one.
B. Between Zero and one.
C. Between Zero to 10.
D. Between 10 to 10.
ANSWER: A

120. Which of the following is the last step in the risk management process?
A. Insurance.
B. Review
C. Risk evaluation.
D. Loss prevention.
ANSWER: A

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

121. Which of the following helps in Risk improvement?
A. Fire brigade
B. Salvage crops
C. Engineers who survey property to be insured
D. Ambulance
ANSWER: C

122. Insurance business is based on ————-.
A. Parkinsons law.
B. Newtons law
C. The theory of probability and law of large numbers.
D. Boyles law.
ANSWER: C

123. The business of insurance is related to protection of —————-.
A. Savings
B. Status.
C. Profits
D. Economic value of assets
ANSWER: D

124. Contractual risk transfers come under————-
A. Cost of loss financing
B. Cost of internal risk reduction
C. Cost of control of loss
D. Cost of residual uncertainty
ANSWER: B

125. Risk retention means————
A. Saving money to pay for the losses
B. Accepting and agreeing to finance the loss oneself
C. Not taking up any activity which is risky.
D. Insuring the risk.
ANSWER: B

126. A person who is risk averse ———–
A. accepts the risk no matter what
B. do not accept the risk as a loss hurts them more than gain benefits them.
C. tries to control the loss.
D. avoids insurance
ANSWER: B

127. If the premium loading is zero then purchasing insurance————–
A. does not change the persons expected wealth
B. changes the persons expected wealth
C. increases the variability of wealth
D. no change in expected wealth .
ANSWER: A

128. Loss control involves a combination of————-.
A. effort and time
B. fund and time
C. funds effort or time.
D. effort and fund.
ANSWER: C

129. The risk which has three outcomes with possibility of gain is ———-
A. Pure.
B. Speculative
C. Static.
D. Dynamic
ANSWER: B

130. The risk management methods are————
A. Insurance
B. Hedging
C. Derivatives
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

131. The concept of insurance is————-.
A. to share the losses by many
B. to make money out of death.
C. to earn interest
D. to earn a status
ANSWER: A

132. Insurance cover————-.
A. Protect assets
B. Prevents loss.
C. Reduces the impact of loss
D. Insurances immortality
ANSWER: C

133. The insurance plays a role in the economic development of the country in following ways:
A. Releases capital for new investment
B. The job potential increases.
C. Money collected is invested in infrastructure.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

134. The company doing the insurance business is called————-.
A. Mutual funds.
B. Non-banking firm.
C. An insurance company
D. Banking company ANSWER: C

135. An insurance company estimates its objective risk for 10,000 exposures at 10 Per cent. Assuming the probability of loss remains the same, what would happen to the objective risk if the number of exposures were to increase to 1 million?
A. It would decrease to 1 percent
B. decrease to 5 percent.
C. remain the same.
D. increase to 20 percent.
ANSWER: A

136. Taylor Tobacco Company is concerned that the company may be held liable in a court of law and forced to pay a large damage award. The characteristics of the judicial system that increase the frequency and severity of losses is known as————-.
A. moral hazard
B. particular risk.
C. speculative risk.
D. legal hazard.
ANSWER: D

138. Which of the following types of risks best meets the requirements for being insurable by private insurers?
A. market risks.
B. property risks.
C. financial risks
D. political risks.
ANSWER: B

139. All of the following are social costs associated with insurance Except———–.
A. increased cost of capital.
B. the expense of doing business.
C. fraudulent claims.
D. inflated claims.
ANSWER: A

140. The medias used for direct marketing are
A. Direct Mail
B. Telephone Contacts
C. Kiosks
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs

141. Risk and Premium are fixed on the basis of————–.
A. . strategic Methods
B. Survey Methods
C. Scientific Methods
D. Probability Methods
ANSWER: C

142. . Bancassurance means______________________.
A. Selling financial services
B. general liability insurance
C. Selling banking products
D. Selling Insurance Products
ANSWER: D

143. Risk means ———-..
A. economy.
B. possibility of loss
C. .reduction of anxiety
D. . meeting externally imposed obligations
ANSWER: B

144. Risk of premature death is a ————-.
A. Financial Risk
B. Dynamic Risk
C. Subjective Risk
D. Personal Risk
ANSWER: D

145. Pure Risk was grouped______________.
A. Property Risk
B. .Personal Risk
C. Liability risk
D. All the above
ANSWER: D

146. Medical Expenses Risk Comes under?
A. Business Risk
B. Price Risk
C. Credit Risk
D. Personal Risk
ANSWER: D

147. Credit Risk is high in case of ____________.
A. Companies
B. Partnership
C. Financial Institutions
D. None of these
ANSWER: C

148. All dynamic risks are____________.
A. predictable
B. Unpredictable
C. Possibility
D. Judgement
ANSWER: A

150. . A bancassurance concept originated in ____________.
A. England
B. Finland
C. France
D. Spain
ANSWER: C

Insurance and Risk Management MCQs Read More »

International Marketing Management MCQs

Business and Management MCQs

International Marketing Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with answers

With the globalization of markets, the tastes and preferences of consumers worldwide are.
A. Converging upon a global norm.
B. Becoming similar to the tastes and preferences of American consumers.
C. So different that they can be ignored by international organizations.
D. Being encouraged by multinational organizations to become increasingly similar.
ANSWER: A

The goals of international marketing are to.
A. eliminate competition in international markets.
B. gain market share and increase profit.
C. expand business activities abroad.
D. create and retain customers in global markets.
ANSWER: D

Being a global organization means.
A. customizing the product range for each segment in part.
B. creating standardised products for homogenious markets.
C. creating both standardized and customized products.
D. any of the above.
ANSWER: C

Which of the following represents a company’s effort to identify and categorize groups of customers and countries according to common characteristics?
A. global market segmentation.
B. global targeting.
C. global positioning.
D. global marketing research.
ANSWER: A

A global market leader is an organization which.
A. has more than 50% global market share.
B. is recognized as being ahead of the rest in terms of market share.
C. is ahead of the competition in terms of global innovation.
D. has the monopoly over several foreign markets.
ANSWER: B

MCQs of International Marketing Management

From the point of view of marketing, an organization that enjoys competitive advantage in an industry has done so by.
A. charging lower prices than competitors.
B. constantly enlarging its marketing activities.
C. focusing on long term profit.
D. creating superior value for customers.
ANSWER: D

The main aim of global marketing is to.
A. find global customers.
B. satisfy global customers better than competitors.
C. coordinate the marketing activities within the constraints of the global environment.
D. achieve all of the above.
ANSWER: D

Key controllable factors in global marketing are.
A. social and technical changes.
B. government policy and legislation.
C. marketing activities and plans.
D. all of the above.
ANSWER: C

Which one is wrong ?
A. Customer is the center of all Marketing activities.
B. Marketing focuses on the needs and wants of customers.
C. Marketing is all about seliing goods and services.
D. It is concerned about satisfying customers through supply of goods and services.
ANSWER: C

Production Concept says.
A. Consumers will prefer products that are widely available and inexpensive.
B. Consumers will prefer better products.
C. Consumers will prefer lower prices.
D. Having the goods produced in a large scale factory with assembly lines.
ANSWER: A

Solved MCQs of International Marketing Management

Green Marketing is.
A. Making environment friendly products.
B. Making more products with natural ingredients.
C. Make use of more green colors in packages.
D. Educate marketers about the importance of natural environment.
ANSWER: A

Relationship Marketing is.
A. The process of creating, building and managing long term relationship with customers, distributors and
suppliers.
B. Developing good relationships with other departments of the company.
C. Concerned with the developing exchanges with customers.
D. The emphasis is to develop products that will satisfy customers and focus was basically on (single)
transaction. ANSWER: A

The process of dividing a total market into market groups so that persons within each group have relatively similar product needs is called.
A. Segmenting
B. Differentiating
C. target marketing.
D. Concentrating
ANSWER: A

Distribution in a service may refer to.
A. a. storage, handling and movement of goods from manufacturer to consumer.
B. Point at which the service is delivered.
C. Point at which service is promoted and communicated.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: A

____________________ are products bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business.
A. Services
B. Consumer products.
C. Specialty products.
D. Industrial products.
ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers

If a company’s objective were to reach masses of buyers that were geographically dispersed at a low cost per exposure, the company would likely choose which of the following promotion forms?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling.
C. Public relations.
D. Sales promotion.
ANSWER: A

Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavors, forms, colors, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called a(n).
A. line extension.
B. brand extension.
C. multibranding
D. new brands.
ANSWER: A

When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand strategies?
A. Product extensions.
B. Line extensions.
C. Brand extensions.
D. New brands.
ANSWER: D

_________________ is a principle of enlightened marketing that requires that a company seek real product and marketing improvements.
A. Innovative marketing.
B. Consumeroriented marketing.
C. Value marketing.
D. Senseofmission marketing.
ANSWER: A

__________________ is the process of evaluating each market segment’s attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
A. Mass marketing.
B. Market segmentation.
C. Market targeting.
D. Market positioning.
ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs

The stage is the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trial is the.
A. decline stage.
B. introduction stage.
C. growth stage.
D. maturity stage.
ANSWER: C

A set of interdependent organizations involved in the process of making a product or service available for use or consumption by the consumer or business user is called a(n).
A. retailer.
B. wholesaler
C. distribution channel.
D. logistics
ANSWER: C

A ________________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move the product through channels.
A. push strategy.
B. pull strategy.
C. blocking strategy.
D. integrated strategy.
ANSWER: A

Consumer goods with unique characteristics or brand identification often requiring a special purchase effort are called.
A. custom products.
B. specialty products.
C. convenience products.
D. shopping products.
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the buyer decision process?
A. need recognition.
B. brand identification.
C. information search.
D. purchase decision.
ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management Solved MCQs

R&D and engineering first produce the product concept into a physical product during which of the following stages of the new product development process?
A. Concept development and testing.
B. Marketing strategy.
C. Business analysis.
D. Product development.
ANSWER: D

A company is practicing ________________ if it focuses on subsegments with distinctive traits that may seek a special combination of benefits.
A. Micromarketing.
B. niche marketing.
C. mass marketing.
D. segment marketing.
ANSWER: B

When a company reviews sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to find out whether these factors satisfy the company’s objectives, they are in which of the following new process development stages?
A. Concept development and testing.
B. Commercialization.
C. Business analysis.
D. Marketing strategy development.
ANSWER: C

A company faces several major decisions in international marketing. The first of these decisions is often.
A. deciding whether to go international.
B. looking at the global marketing environment.
C. deciding which markets to enter.
D. deciding how to enter markets.
ANSWER: B

When producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system, they comprise a.

A. conventional marketing system.
B. powerbased marketing system.
C. horizontal marketing system.
D. vertical marketing system.
ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers for Lecturer Exams

______________ is a person’s distinguishing psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to his or her own environment.
A. Psychographics.
B. Personality.
C. Demographics.
D. Lifestyle.
ANSWER: B

The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market or subsets of a few markets is called.
A. undifferentiated marketing.
B. differentiated marketing.
C. concentrated marketing.
D. turbo marketing.
ANSWER: C

________________ is screening newproduct ideas in order to spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
A. Idea generation.
B. Concept development and testing.
C. Idea screening.
D. Brainstorming
ANSWER: C

If a company (considering its options on the product/market expansion grid) chooses to move into different unrelated fields (from what it has ever done before) with new products as a means to stimulate growth, the company would be following which of the following general strategies?
A. market penetration.
B. market development.
C. product development.
D. diversification
ANSWER: D

Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
A. decline stage.
B. introduction stage.
C. growth stage.
D. maturity stage.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs for lecturer commerce

Each salesperson is assigned to an exclusive area in which to sell the company’s full line of products or services in which type of salesforce structure?
A. Territorial sales force.
B. Product sales force.
C. Customer sales force.
D. Hybrid sales force.
ANSWER: A

The advantages of audience selectivity, no ad competition and personalization apply to which type of media?
A. Newspapers.
B. Television.
C. Direct Mail.
D. Radio.
ANSWER: C

When companies make marketing decisions by considering consumers’ wants and the longrun interests of the company, consumer, and the general population, they are practicing which of the following principles?
A. Innovative marketing.
B. Consumeroriented marketing.
C. Value marketing.
D. Societal marketing.
ANSWER: D

All of the following would be ways to segment within the category of psychographic segmentation EXCEPT.
A. social class.
B. occupation.
C. lifestyle.
D. personality.
ANSWER: B

Internal records are an important source of information. Which of the following are not deemed as internal records?
A. Marketing and sales records.
B. Customer service records.
C. Accounting records.
D. Competitor information.
ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs for FPSC

Which of the following is correct? International retailing is the meeting of consumers’ needs in international markets by.

A. domestic retailers adopting a concept.
B. export agents in international markets.
C. international retail organizations.
D. wholesalers in international markets.
ANSWER: C

What approach should a brand manager adopt to know the status of a brand stands in terms of consumer perceptions?
A. Compare two or three brands.
B. Analyze the market segmentations.
C. Select the potential target markets.
D. Understanding customer needs.
ANSWER: A

An apparel marketer is planning to launch an existing brand name into a new product category. Which brand development strategy is being implemented?
A. Line extension.
B. Multibrand.
C. Brand extension.
D. Rebranding.
ANSWER: C

Which of the following is basically getting into different versions of the same base product on the same market?
A. Product extension.
B. Brand diversification.
C. Market extension.
D. Line extension.
ANSWER: D

Public Relations Departments are responsible for which of the following?
A. Producing written material.
B. Organizational identity media
C. Telephone help lines.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs for PPSC

Which of the following is not considered part of direct marketing?

A Advertising
B. Inserts
C. Direct mail.
D. Telemarketing
ANSWER: A

Price discrimination involves.
A. Charging the highest possible price.
B. Charging different segments of customers different prices.
C. Being the lowest cost producer.
D. Charging a different price to that of competitors.
ANSWER: B

Cost plus pricing is.
A. Charging the highest possible price.
B. Ensuring you are the lowest cost producer.
C. Pricing by calculating the cost of production and adding on a margin.
D. Charging marginally more than the competition.
ANSWER: C

Social Marketing is primarily concerned with _____________.
A. Changing culture.
B. Changing the status quo.
C. Motivating volunteers.
D. Influencing behavior.
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is not a criteria for Segmenting Consumer Markets?
A. Geographic.
B. Turnover.
C. Behavioral.
D. Psychographic.
ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management MCQs for KPPSC

Which is the first step in marketing?
A. Buying.
B. Selling.
C. Assembling.
D. Financing.
ANSWER: A

Transportation creates which type of utility?
A. time.
B. place.
C. form.
D. storage.
ANSWER: B

Which type of utility is created by Warehouse?
A. place.
B. time.
C. form.
D. storage.
ANSWER: B

Trading up is the act of what high priced prestigious products to the existing product line?
A. adding.
B. subtracting.
C. deleting.
D. maintaining.
ANSWER: A

Brand is a means of
A. communication.
B. identification.
C. packing.
D. specialization.
ANSWER: B

Selling is an act of
A. persuasion.
B. illusion.
C. forcing.
D. communication.
ANSWER: C

What type of a term is Price?
A. absolute.
B. relative.
C. composite.
D. standard.
ANSWER: A

What is the policy adopted my manufacturers to get success in the field of marketing.
A. Marketing mix.
B. Product mix.
C. Promotional mix.
D. Price mix.
ANSWER: A

what creates a particular image in the minds of consumer?
A. Branding.
B. Personal selling.
C. Grading.
D. product planning.
ANSWER: A

The second element to effect the volume of sales is
A. price.
B. product.
C. promotion.
D. distribution.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers for Competitive Exams

Anything which possess utility is ________________
A. product
B. finished goods.
C. raw materials.
D. stock
ANSWER: A

Which goods are meant for final consumption?
A. Consumer.
B. Convenience.
C. Shopping.
D. Specialty.
ANSWER: A

What are the general rules set up by the management itself in making product decisions.
A. Product policy.
B. Product planning.
C. Product mix.
D. Product packing.
ANSWER: A

___________ is a group of products that are closely related.
A. Product line.
B. Product mix.
C. Product development.
D. Product positioning.
ANSWER: A

What may be defined as the exchange of goods or services in terms of money?
A. Price.
B. Product.
C. Grading.
D. Branding.
ANSWER: A

Which price is the high initial of the product at the time of introduction of the product in the market?
A. Skimming price.
B. Penetrating price.
C. High pricing.
D. Moderate pricing.
ANSWER: A

__________ is allowed in the form of deductions from the list price.
A. Trade discount.
B. Quantity decisions.
C. Cash discount.
D. Seasonal discount.
ANSWER: A

What is price at which a retailer sells the products to his buyers?
A. Retail price.
B. Whole sale price.
C. FOB price.
D. Administered price.
ANSWER: A

A method which aims to capture the market and increase the sales volume is known as
A. packing.
B. purchasing.
C. sales promotion.
D. marketing.
ANSWER: C

What creates a non personal stimulation of demand in advertising?
A. Pricing.
B. Production.
C. Public relation.
D. Distribution.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers NTS, ETEA

What gives a chances to the consumers to compare the products with their substitutes?
A. Sampling.
B. Contest.
C. Premium offers.
D. Distribution.
ANSWER: A

__________ is a mass communication of information intended to persuade buyers as to maximize profits.
A. Advertising.
B. Salesmanship
C. Sales promotion.
D. Personal selling.
ANSWER: A

What other forms of promotion are supported by advertisement.
A. Personal selling.
B. Branding.
C. Promotion.
D. Publicity.
ANSWER: A

What are published according to the taste or liking of the public?
A. Magazines.
B. Journals.
C. News paper.
D. Special issues.
ANSWER: A

What are in the form of a small book?
A. Booklets.
B. Circulars.
C. Folders.
D. Sales letters.
ANSWER: A

Who is a group of persons, who are experts on various phases of advertising and related marketing areas.
A. Marketing agency.
B. Advertising agency.
C. Promotion agency.
D. Marketing research agency.
ANSWER: B

___________ influences the buyer to buy a product.
A. Personal selling.
B. Packing
C. Price
D. Grading.
ANSWER: A

Products reach the hands of customers through a number of channels, of that the main channel is.
A. wholesaler.
B. distributor
C. retailer
D. agents
ANSWER: A

What includes the storage and protection of goods?
A. Warehouse.
B. Transport.
C. Store house.
D. Godowns.
ANSWER: A

What is concerned with the collection and concentration of goods of the same type from different sources?
A. Assembling.
B. Selling.
C. Buying.
D. Trading.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs Past Paper MCQs

The wide term which includes advertising, sales and personal selling.
A. Distribution.
B. Warehousing.
C. Promotion.
D. Transportation.
ANSWER: C

What brings about the change in the ownership of products?
A. Exchange.
B. Storing.
C. Promotion.
D. MIS.
ANSWER: A

__________ is the most fundamental aspect for any merchandise transactions.
A. Financing.
B. Grading.
C. Insurance..
D. Packing
ANSWER: A

What are the major channel components who help in the transfer of goods from the hands of producer to consumer?
A. Salesman.
B. Middleman.
C. Manufacturer.
D. Creditor.
ANSWER: A

What system existed in the initial stage of marketing?
A. Sales.
B. Barter.
C. Exchange.
D. Purchase.
ANSWER: B

What plays a significant role in under developed countries, as it is a multiplier of activities.
A. Sales.
B. Buying.
C. Marketing.
D. Production.
ANSWER: C

What type of markets deals with purchase or sale of gold?
A. Commodity.
B. Bullion.
C. Retail.
D. World.
ANSWER: B

In Which market, goods are exchanged and the physical delivery of goods takes immediately.
A. future.
B. spot.
C. perfect.
D. bullion.
ANSWER: B

In which market, large number of buyers and sellers meet.
A. imperfect.
B. bullion.
C. perfect.
D. retail.
ANSWER: C

What is psychological, social and physical behavior of potential consumer called as?
A. a. Household behavior.
B. b. Seller behavior.
C. c. Manufacturer behavior.
D. Consumer behavior.
ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers

A buyer makes a purchase of a particular product or a particular brand is termed as.
A. Purchase motives.
B. Patronage motives.
C. Selection motives.
D. Product buying motives.
ANSWER: D

A careful study of what will facilitate the marketer in determining the size, form, style, color, package etc?
A. manufacturers potential.
B. market.
C. consumer behavior.
D. market segmentation.
ANSWER: C

The process whereby individuals decide whether, what, when, how and from whom to purchase goods and services can be termed as?
A. household behavior.
B. Buyer behavior.
C. product buying motives.
D. purchase motives.
ANSWER: B

Motives refers to strong
A. purchase power.
B. needs.
C. behavior.
D. emotions.
ANSWER: D

Buying decision of a customer depends on his
A. attitude.
B. promotion.
C. price.
D. product.
ANSWER: A

A satisfied buyer is a silent
A. sales man.
B. promotion.
C. advertisement.
D. target market.
ANSWER: C

A consumer chooses an alternative which gives maximum

A. satisfaction.
B. usage.
C. utility.
D. durability.
ANSWER: A

The buying process begins when a person has

A. a satisfied need.
B. an unsatisfied need.
C. an immediate need.
D. a future need.
ANSWER: B

The individuals specific behavior in the market place is affected by internal factor
A. family.
B. culture.
C. attitudes.
D. economic.
ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with answers

The external factors of consumer behavior are also called as.
A. environmental factors.
B. consumer behavior factors.
C. product factors.
D. specific factors.
ANSWER: A

Economics explains that consumer behavior in relation to
A. social factors.
B. psychological factors.
C. economic factors.
D. demographic factors.
ANSWER: C

A collection of individuals which influences individual’s opinion are called as.
A. reference groups.
B. advertising agency.
C. manufacturers.
D. friends.
ANSWER: A

Culture refers to.
A. social values, language, customs.
B. needs, motives, perception.
C. wants, search, decide.
D. product preference.
ANSWER: A

___________ carry their goods from place to place in hand cart and sell them to the consumers at their door steps.
A. Hawkers
B. Pedlars.
C. Cheap jacks.
D. Street traders.
ANSWER: A

Who are people who carry their goods on their heads?
A. Hawkers.
B. Cheap jacks.
C. Pedlars.
D. Street traders.
ANSWER: C

Who open their shops on market days?
A. Street traders.
B. Cheap jacks.
C. Hawkers.
D. Market traders.
ANSWER: D

Service of retailer ___________
A. keeps variety of goods.
B. purchases in bulk
C. matches demand with production.
D. demand creators.
ANSWER: A

An Example of agent middle man.
A. retailer.
B. Broker.
C. wholesaler.
D. truck jobbers.
ANSWER: B

An example of merchant middlemen.
A. Commission agent.
B. wholesaler.
C. resident buyers.
D. factors.
ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers

The wholesaler who do not provide credit and transport facility are called as __________
A. cash and carry wholesaler.
B. limited function wholesaler.
C. mail order wholesaler.
D. full service wholesaler.
ANSWER: A

Services rendered by wholesaler to manufacturer is
A. advice to retailer.
B. facilitating small purchase.
C. to keep varieties of goods.
D. Acting as an intermediary.
ANSWER: A

An example of large scale retailers.
A. fixed shop retailers.
B. Departmental stores.
C. general shops.
D. market traders.
ANSWER: B

Super markets is an example of.
A. Largescale retailers.
B. Small scale retailers.
C. fixed shop retailers.
D. itinerant retailers.
ANSWER: A

What are the criteria for market segmentation?
A. Accessibility and responsiveness.
B. Accessibility and user status.
C. Accessibility and loyal status.
D. Accessibility and attitude.
ANSWER: A

The purpose of segmentation is to
A. access the changing pattern of consumers..
B. measure the changing pattern of consumers..
C. identify the changing pattern of consumers..
D. usage rate of the changing pattern of consumers. .
ANSWER: B

A clearly defined segment must ________to the changes in any of the elements of marketing mix.
A. identify
B. respond
C. access
D. use
ANSWER: A

In which type of segmentation, the whole market is divided into different geographic units.
A. demographic segmentation.
B. geographic segmentation.
C. socio economic segmentation.
D. psychographic segmentation.
ANSWER: B

Division of market on the basis of variables like gender, income, occupation, education are called as
A. psychographic segmentation.
B. socio economic segmentation.
C. geographic segmentation.
D. demographic segmentation.
ANSWER: D

Consumers are subdivided into different groups on the basis of personality, life style, attitude and values are called as
A. demographic segmentation.
B. geographic segmentation.
C. socio economic segmentation.
D. psychographic segmentation.
ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions and answers

When the consumers are classified on the basis of religion, customs, culture are termed as _________
A. demographic segmentation.
B. geographic segmentation.
C. socio economic segmentation.
D. psychographic segmentation.
ANSWER: C

A market may be segmented by classifying people according to their enthusiasm for a product are termed as.
A. attitude segmentation.
B. geographic segmentation.
C. socio economic segmentation.
D. psychographic segmentation.
ANSWER: A

Benefits of segmentation :
A. determining marketing strategies.
B. reduced sale.
C. shifting loyals.
D. unknown markets.
ANSWER: A

Consumers who buy one brand all the time.
A. hard core loyals.
B. safe core loyals.
C. shifting loyals.
D. switchers. ANSWER: A

Consumers who are loyal to two or three brands.
A. hard core loyals.
B. safe core loyals.
C. shifting loyals.
D. switchers.
ANSWER: B

Consumers who shift from one brand to another.
A. hard core loyals.
B. safe core loyals.
C. shifting loyals.
D. switchers.
ANSWER: C

Consumers who show no loyalty to any brand.
A. hard core loyal.
B. safe core loyal.
C. shifting loyal.
D. switchers.
ANSWER: D

Celebrities in entertainment world, models etc., need cosmetics on a regular basis, as it is the most important part of their profession is an example of
A. light user.
B. medium user.
C. heavy user.
D. switchers.
ANSWER: A

______ areas in India is considered today as a huge store house of untapped marketing opportunities.
A. Rural
B. Urban
C. Semi urban.
D. Metropolitan.
ANSWER: A

Which type of marketing is identifying and serving the needs of consumers living in villages.
A. Rural.
B. Agricultural marketing.
C. Retail marketing.
D. International marketing.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

Increasing competition in urban markets make which markets attractive.
A. rural.
B. retail.
C. agricultural.
D. wholesale.
ANSWER: A

Which level of urban consumers is high?
A. awareness.
B. educational.
C. loyalty.
D. satisfaction.
ANSWER: A

Which marketing is concerned with the flow of goods and services from urban to rural and vice versa.
A. Urban.
B. Rural.
C. Retail.
D. International.
ANSWER: B

Reasons for growing rural markets are.
A. Change in rural consumer behavior.
B. marketing strategies.
C. promotion strategies.
D. product mix.
ANSWER: A

Which is the final stage of any economic activity.
A. Wholesale.
B. Brokering.
C. Retail.
D. Factoring.
ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs

Which of the following represents a company’s effort to identify and categorize groups of customers according to common characteristics?
A. market segmentation. B. targeting
C. positioning
D. marketing research.
ANSWER: A

Which one is wrong ?
A. Customer is the center of all Marketing activities.
B. Marketing focuses on the needs and wants of customers.
C. Marketing is all about selling goods and services.
D. It is concerned about satisfying customers through supply of goods and services.
ANSWER: C

Green Marketing.
A. educate marketers about the importance of natural environment. B. make use of more green colors in packages.
C. making more products with natural ingredients
D. making environment friendly products.
ANSWER: D

____________________ are products bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use in conducting a business.
A. Consumer products.

B. Services.
C. Industrial products. D. Specialty products.
ANSWER: C

The stage is the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trial is the:
A. decline stage.
B. introduction stage. C. growth stage.
D. maturity stage.

ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs and Answers

Consumer goods with unique characteristics or brand identification often requiring a special purchase effort are called:
A. custom products.
B. specialty products.
C. convenience products. D. shopping products.
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the buyer decision process?

A. need recognition.
B. brand identification.
C. information search.
D. purchase decision. ANSWER: B

______________ is a person’s distinguishing psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to his or her own environment.
A. Psychographics. B. Personality.
C. Demographics. D. Lifestyle.
ANSWER: A

________________ is screening newproduct ideas in order to spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
A. Idea generation.
B. Concept development and testing. C. Idea screening.
D. Brainstorming.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with answers

Which of the following is not considered part of direct marketing?

A. Advertising.
B. Inserts.
C. Direct mail.
D. Telemarketing.

ANSWER: A

Price discrimination involves:
A. Charging the highest possible price.
B. Charging different segments of customers different prices. C. Being the lowest cost producer.
D. Charging a different price to that of competitors.
ANSWER: B

Cost plus pricing is.
A. Charging the highest possible price.
B. Ensuring you are the lowest cost producer.
C. Pricing by calculating the cost of production and adding on a margin. D. Charging marginally more than the competition.
ANSWER: C

Social Marketing is primarily concerned with _____________.

A. Changing culture.
B. Changing the status quo.
C. Motivating volunteers.
D. Influencing behavior. ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

Which of the following is not a criteria for Segmenting Consumer Markets?

A. Geographic.
B. Turnover.
C. Behavioral.
D. Psychographic. ANSWER: B

The following are all major stages of a product life cycle except:

A. Sales decline.
B. Market maturity.
C. Market Introduction.
D. Market Implementation. ANSWER: D

The correct steps in the new product development process are.
A. Idea generation, screening, idea evaluation, development, and commercialization. B. Idea creation, market research and development, and introduction of product.
C. Product positioning, idea screening, evaluation, and commercialization.
D. Idea screening, idea development, marketing research, and commercialization.
ANSWER: A

A key objective of marketing is to:
A. Find a break though opportunities.
B. Satisfy the needs of some group of customers that the firm serves. C. Develop a competitive advantage.
D. Offer new or improved products.
ANSWER: B

____________ is about bringing your product/service to the attention of your target market, and reminding them or persuading customers to purchase that product/service.
A. Production.

B. Promotion. C. Budget.
D. Image.
ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management Multiple Choice Questions with answers

The purpose of __________ is to inform customers of the features and benefits of a product/service and persuading them to purchase it in preference to the products/services of competitors.
A. Marketing.
B. Image.
C. Marketing plan. D. Advertising.
ANSWER: D

The ________ concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features.
A. product.
B. marketing. C. production. D. selling.
ANSWER: A

During market segmentation analysis, the marketer identifies which segments present the greatest opportunity. These segments are called ________.
A. target markets.
B. primary markets.
C. tertiary markets.
D. demographic markets.
ANSWER: A

The increase in what has enhanced rural demand for several products. A. purchase power.
B. income.
C. awareness.
D. population. ANSWER: B

Product specifications like design, price and durability should be in accordance with the needs of which masses?
A. rural.
B. urban.
C. producer. D. retailer.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

Rural India has many fairs and festivals and marketers use these platforms for ______

A. brand promotions
B. price strategy.
C. marketing strategy.
D. formulating strategies . ANSWER: A

Marketing communication in the rural area has to be in

A. local language.
B. press media.
C. national language.
D. out door media. ANSWER: A

When goods are sold directly to the consumers it is called as

A. pricing decisions.
B. product strategy.
C. retail marketing.
D. e commerce. ANSWER: D

When a product is sold what type of utility is created?

A. time.
B. place.
C. ownership. D. transport.
ANSWER: C

A retailer creates _______ utility by keeping the store open when the consumers prefer to shop.

A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management MCQs

A retailer by being available at a convenient location, he creates which type of utility?

A. ownership.
B. time.
C. place.
D. transport ANSWER: C

Which is the largest global online auction website.

A. ebay.
B. alibaba.Com. C. Walmart.
D. reliance fresh.
ANSWER: A

What will be attached to most consumer products, turning ordinary items into smart products. A. Barcode.
B. electronic codes.
C. RFID tags.
D. electronic tags. ANSWER: C

what enables the retailer to know in detail, how supplies move from distribution centre into store rooms and on to the shop floor?
A. RFID tags.
B. Barcode.
C. electronic codes. D. electronic tags.
ANSWER: A

In evolution of marketing,which stage was concerned only with mass orientation?

A. barter system.
B. Production
C. sales orientation.
D. consumer orientation. ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management MCQs

In which stage only products are brought forward to the market which are capable of satisfying the tastes, preferences of customers.
A. production orientation. B. barter system.
C. sales orientation.
D. sales orientation.
ANSWER: A

In which stage selling activity becomes the dominat factor, without any efforts for the satisfaction of the consumer needs.
A. production orientation. B. barter system.
C. sales orientation.
D. consumer orientation.
ANSWER: C

According to whom Market includes both place and region in which buyers and sellers are in free competition with one another
A. Pyle
B. Kotler
C. Drucker
D. Clark and Clark.
ANSWER: A

The limitations of emarketing is.

A. the inability to touch and feel.
B. instant cash payment.
C. touch and feel.
D. immediate delivery. ANSWER: A

Selling emphasizes on

A. product.
B. consumers.
C. markets.
D. sellers. ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs

What views customers as last link in the business.

A. Marketing.
B. Selling.
C. Buying.
D. Assembling. ANSWER: B

Marketing emphasizes on

A. consumers wants.
B. sellers need.
C. manufacturers profit. D. retailers margin.
ANSWER: A

Distribution means _______

A. physical transfer of goods. B. assembling of goods.
C. processing of goods.
D. scatter of goods. ANSWER: A

Factors influencing marketing concepts.

A. assembling of goods.
B. population growth.
C. physical transfer of goods.
D. scatter of goods. ANSWER: B

4ps of marketing.
A. product, price, promotion, place.
B. product, price, preference, place.
C. product, payment, promotion, place. D. product, price, promotion, publicity.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

________creates images in the minds of the consumers.

A. branding
B. pricing
C. product planning.
D. market research. ANSWER: A

What is concerned with the collection and concentration of goods of the same type from different sources at a place for further movement?
A. Assembling.

B. Buying.
C. Selling.
D. Transporting
ANSWER: A

Product represents _______

A. bundle of expectations.
B. demand
C. consumers need.
D. economic activity. ANSWER: A

Which type of goods are meant for final consumption by consumers and not for sale?

A. Industrial goods.
B. Convenience goods.
C. Shopping goods.
D. Consumer goods. ANSWER: D

Which are those goods which consumers buy with minimum shopping effort?

A. Consumer goods
B. Shopping goods.
C. Industrial goods.
D. Convenience goods. ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management MCQs

which goods are those which are used for further production of goods?

A. Consumer goods.
B. Convenience goods.
C. Industrial goods.
D. Shopping goods. ANSWER: C

Goods with unique characteristics are called as

A. Consumer goods.
B. Industrial goods.
C. Convenience goods.
D. Specialty goods. ANSWER: D

Which goods are purchased by the consumer only after careful comparison?

A. Consumer goods.
B. Industrial goods.
C. Convenience goods.
D. Shopping goods. ANSWER: D

What is the set of all products lines and items that a particular seller offers for sale?

A. Marketing mix.
B. product mix
C. price mix.
D. promotional mix. ANSWER: B

Expansion of product mix is also called as.

A. disinvestment.
B. differentiation.
C. diversification.
D. diffusion. ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs

Eliminating an entire product line is termed as. A. elimination of product mix.
B. expansion of product mix.
C. positioning the product.
D. contraction of product mix. ANSWER: D

When a company adds a lower priced item to its line of prestigious products is termed as.

A. Trading down.
B. contraction
C. trading up.

D. expansion ANSWER: A

Feature of growth stage in PLC.
A. increase in sales and profit.
B. increase in sales and expenses.
C. increase in sales and decrease in profit. D. increase in sales and promotion.
ANSWER: A

In saturation stage further increase in what is not possible?

A. profit.
B. sales.
C. awareness. D. promotion.
ANSWER: B

In new product planning process what is the first stage?

A. Screening.
B. Testing.
C. Idea generation.
D. analysis. ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management Multiple Choice Questions with answers

Sources of new product ideas.

A. sales.
B. R&D.
C. price.
D. promotion.
ANSWER: B

__________ means critical evaluation of product ideas generated.

A. Screening.
B. Idea generation.
C. Testing
D. Analysis ANSWER: A

What involves projection of future demand?

A. Market analysis.
B. Concept testing.
C. Test marketing.
D. commercialization. ANSWER: C

Which is the final stage of product planning?

A. Market analysis.
B. Concept testing.
C. Test marketing.
D. commercialization. ANSWER: B

Changing an existing product to suit the changing conditions is.

A. Product modification.

B. product elimination. C. product concentration. D. product addition.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

You pay price
A. when you meet a salesmen. B. when you pay rent.
C. when you visit a shop.
D. when u seek.
ANSWER: B

What does marketing create for goods and services?

A. customer.
B. demand.
C. business.
D. competition . ANSWER: B

In the modern sense emphasis of marketing is on

A. market.
B. sales.
C. consumer.
D. competition. ANSWER: C

Marketing starts with identification of whose needs?

A. seller.
B. consumer.
C. goods.
D. manufacturer.
ANSWER: B

Advertising creates ____ among customers.

A. awareness
B. clarity
C. confusion
D. belief ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management Multiple Choice Questions with answers

Promotional mix includes.
A. Advertising, personal selling and sales promotion. B. Advertising, awareness and sales promotion.
C. Advertising, personal selling and publicity.
D. Segmentation, personal selling and sales promotion.
ANSWER: A

Distributional activities involve decisions regarding.

A. advertisement.
B. channels of distribution.
C. decision making.
D. promotion strategies. ANSWER: B

Price of a product affects its

A. advertisement.
B. demand.
C. packing.
D. promotion. ANSWER: B

Assembly of goods means bringing goods to a __________ place.

A. central
B. market
C. consumer
D. sellers ANSWER: A

What does transportation involve? A. distributing goods.
B. collecting goods
C. sending goods
D. controlling goods ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

Grading means ________ products into different classes.

A. separating
B. different
C. marketing
D. planning ANSWER: A

Risk management is an important function of.

A. marketing.
B. selling.
C. planning.
D. controlling. ANSWER: A

____________ are networks that connect people within a company to each other and to the company network.
A. Internets.

B. Extranets.

C. Bitstreams.

D. WWW.
ANSWER: B

_______________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms intranets, extranets and the Internet to conduct a company’s business.
A. Eprocurement. B. Ebusiness.
C. Ecommerce. D. Emarketing
ANSWER: A

Which of the following is not one of the benefits of ecommerce to sellers?

A. Ecommerce can help to reduce costs.
B. Ecommerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building.
C. Ecommerce increases the net cost per contact.
D. Ecommerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs. ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs

The Ecommerce domain that involves business activity initiated by the consumer and targeted to businesses is known as:
A. Business to Business (B2B). B. Consumer to Consumer (C2C). C. Business to Consumer (B2C). D. Consumer to Business (C2B).
ANSWER: C

A ______________ is a B2B trading network that links a particular seller with its own trading partners. A. web community.
B. bitstream.
C. private trading network.
D. virtual network. ANSWER: C

The type of website that is designed to build customer goodwill and to supplement other sales channels rather then sell the company’s products directly is known as a ______________ website.
A. customer service. B. clickandmortar. C. marketing
D. corporate
ANSWER: B

When preparing a website, designers should ensure that the site enables usertouser communication. This design feature is known as __________________.
A. context.
B. commerce. C. community. D. connection.
ANSWER: A

When preparing a website, designers should ensure that the site makes effective use of the text, pictures and video. This design feature is known as _________.
A. communication. B. connection.
C. content.
D. context.
ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management Multiple Choice Questions

A ___________ is an online advertisement that pops up between changes on a website.

A. border.
B. plunge.
C. boarder
D. interstitial. ANSWER: B

______________ marketing is the Internet version of wordofmouth marketing.

A. Viral.
B. Visceral. C. Virile.
D. Virtual. ANSWER: A

Websites upon which members can congregate online and exchange views on issues of common interest are known as ______________.
A. emarketing.
B. web communities. C. web casts.
D. virtual communities.
ANSWER: A

What does the following definition refer to? Achieving marketing objectives through the use of any electronic communications technology
A. Ebusiness.
B. Ecommerce.
C. Emarketing.
D. Internet marketing.
ANSWER: C

Using the Internet for marketing research to find out customers needs and wants is an example of. A. promotion
B. satisfying customer requirements.
C. anticipating customer requirements.
D. identifying customer requirements. ANSWER: D

International Marketing Management MCQs

Assessing the demand for digital services (the online revenue contribution) is an example of.

A. awareness creation.
B. identifying customer requirements.
C. satisfying customer requirements.
D. anticipating customer requirements. ANSWER: D

Emarketing is best seen as: A. the same as ecommerce. B. equivalent to ebusiness. C. broader than ebusiness.
D. a subset of ebusiness. ANSWER: D

The direct online contribution effectiveness refers to.
A. the proportion of sales influenced by the web site.
B. the proportion of business turnover achieved by ecommerce transactions. C. both the first and third answers above.
D. the reach of audience volume of a site.
ANSWER: C

The stage is the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trial is the.
A. decline stage.
B. introduction stage. C. growth stage.
D. maturity stage.
ANSWER: A

Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavors, forms, colors, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called .
A. line extension. B. brand extension. C. multibranding D. product line.
ANSWER: B

International Marketing Management MCQs

Marketing is an ________ found in all types of business.

A. universal function.
B. strategic function.
C. economic function.
D. managerial function. ANSWER: A

Products are more identified by their

A. Brand.
B. packet.
C. advertisement.
D. name. ANSWER: A

Plastic jars are nowadays quiet popular for. A. bundling.
B. packing.
C. collecting.
D. assembling. ANSWER: B

Retailer provides feedback to wholesalers and ______ about consumers preference.

A. manufacturers.
B. consumers
C. retailer
D. agents ANSWER: A

Sales promotion includes all promotional activities other than advertising, personal selling and

A. publicity.
B. advertisement.
C. production.
D. coupon.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

The object of sales promotion is to increase the buying response of ultimate ___________
A. wholesaler.
B. consumers.
C. retailers
D. manufacturers
ANSWER: B

The object of sales promotion is to improve ____________
A. market share.
B. stock.
C. price
D. quality
ANSWER: A

Informing buyers of new brand and new package is the __________ of sales promotion.
A. objective.
B. method.
C. application
D. quality
ANSWER: A

Free samples are given to customers to introduce a new
A. product
B. promotion
C. after sales service
D. application.
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs

Coupon is a certificate that reduces the _______ of the product.
A. price
B. quantity
C. quality
D. pack
ANSWER: A

Priceoff gives a temporary___________ to the consumers.
A. discount
B. free sample.
C. products
D. information
ANSWER: A

Advertising is a__________communication.
A. personal
B. nonpersonal.
C. both a&b.
D. regional
ANSWER: B

Producers of garments often organize______ shows to promote their products.
A. sample
B. charity
C. fashion
D. movie
ANSWER: C

Goods are produced these days on a large scale in anticipation of ________ demand.
A. future
B. past
C. present
D. more
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management Solved MCQs

In the absence of advertisement firms cannot reach the consumers in __________
A. large number.
B. few number.
C. retail
D. demand
ANSWER: A

What does a salesman pass on regarding the needs and taste of the consumer to the manufacturers?
A. Price.
B. goods.
C. demand.
D. information.
ANSWER: D

Salesman explains to the consumers by giving a__________ of how to use it.
A. demonstrations.
B. products
C. price
D. promotion
ANSWER: A

International Marketing Management MCQs with Answers

If a company’s objective were to reach masses of buyers that were geographically dispersed at a low cost per exposure, the company would likely choose which of the following promotion forms?
A. Advertising
B. personal selling
C. public relations
D. sales promotion
ANSWER: A

A set of interdependent organizations involved in the process of making a product or service available for use or consumption by the consumer or business user is called a(n).
A. retailer
B. wholesaler
C. distribution channel.
D. logistics
ANSWER: C

When a company reviews sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to find out whether these factors satisfy the company’s objectives, they are in which of the following new process development stages?
A. Concept development and testing.
B. Commercialization
C. Business analysis.
D. Marketing strategy development.
ANSWER: C

International Marketing Management MCQs Read More »

Business Ethics MCQs

Business and Management MCQs

Business Ethics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions

Business ethics deals primarily with
A. social responsibility.
B. the pricing of products and services.
C. moral obligation.
D. being unfair to the competition.
ANSWER: C

Ethics are important because
A. suppliers prefer to deal with ethical companies.
B. customers prefer to deal with ethical companies.
C. employees prefer to deal with ethical companies.
D. all of the choices.
ANSWER: D

According to the concept of moral intensity, a worker is most likely to behave ethically and legally when
A. a manager observes his or her behavior closely.
B. the worker has intense morals.
C. the consequences of the act are minor.
D. the consequences of the act are substantial.
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics Important MCQs

Pierre takes a utilitarian viewpoint of ethics. He will therefore judge a business decision to be ethical so long as
A. more good than bad results from the decision.
B. everybody is treated fairly.
C. certain rights are not violated.
D. he has good character and integrity.
ANSWER: A

Benefits derived from social responsibility include
A. enhanced organizational efficiency
B. producing better products
C. attracting people who want to work for the firm
D. both a & c
ANSWER: D

Business Ethics MCQuestions and Answers

According to concept of moral laxity, workers will often behave unethically because
A. they have planned to be unethical.
B. they come from dysfunctional families.
C. other issues seem more important at the time.
D. management pressures them into unethical behavior.
ANSWER: C

Unethical behavior is often triggered by
A. pressure from higher management to achieve goals.
B. an organizational atmosphere that condones such behavior.
C. both a & b
D. a system of checks and balances.
ANSWER: C

Building a sustainable environment includes
A. developing a green supply chain
B. omitting hazardous emissions
C. writing a code of ethics
D. both a & b
ANSWER: D

A written statement of policies and principles that guides the behaviour of all employees is called
A. code of ethics
B. word of ethics
C. ethical dilemma
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

An empirical inquiry into the actual rules or standards of a particular group is
A. normative justice
B. descriptive justice
C. interpersonal justice
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics Multiple Choice Questions

Which of the following is not usually the objective of a code of ethics?
A. to create an ethical workplace
B. to evaluate the ethical components of the proposed actions of the employees
C. to improve the public image of the company
D. to enhance the profits of the business continuously
ANSWER: D

The HR policy which is based on the philosophy of the utmost good for the greatest number of people is covered under the
A. utilitarian approach
B. approach based on rights
C. approach based on justice
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

Which of the following is not a core principle of the Society for Human Resource Managements Code of Ethics?
A. professional responsibility
B. fairness and justice
C. professional development
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D

Which of the following factors shapes the ethical behaviour of the members of an organization?
A. The supervisors behaviour
B. organizational culture
C. code of ethics
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

The purpose of backdating stock options is to give the stock-option holder
A. large payout on his or her birthday.
B. tax-free investment.
C. chance to diversify his or her stock portfolio.
D. sure profit on the options.
ANSWER: D

Business Ethics most Important Past Paper MCQs

The ethical dilemma of choosing between two rights refers to
A. choosing between the lesser of two evils.
B. deciding which of two employee rights is the most important.
C. deciding to offer a bribe or lose out on an important opportunity.
D. choosing between the two types of sexual harassment.
ANSWER: A

The stakeholder view of social responsibility states that organizations must respond to the needs of
A. employees and customers.
B. shareholders and owners.
C. all interested parties.
D. all those who might sue the organization.
ANSWER: C

A firm is said to have good corporate social performance when
A. stockholders invest in socially responsible causes.
B. charitable deductions are automatically deducted from pay without the consent of employees.
C. the company has not been convicted of ethical violations for five consecutive years.
D. stakeholders are satisfied with its level of social responsibility.
ANSWER: D

A whistle blower is an employee who
A. exposes organizational wrongdoing.
B. engages in unethical behavior.
C. engages in unethical behavior.
D. referees disputes with other employees.
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics MCQs

Which one of the following approaches to creating an ethical and socially responsible workplace is likely to be the most powerful?
A. Passing out buttons with the statement Just Say No to Bad Ethics
B. Placing posters about ethics throughout the organization
C. Top management acting as models of the right behavior
D. Including a statement about ethics and social responsibility in the employee handbook
ANSWER: C

A recommended way of minimizing unethical behavior is for employees to
A. write anonymous notes to ethical violators.
B. immediately report all suspicious behavior to top management.
C. spend part of their vacation preparing a personal philosophy of ethics. D. confront fellow employees about ethical deviations.
ANSWER: D

Which statement does not reflect the idea of ethical relativism:
A. All opinions are equal; no one can say what is ethically right or wrong.
B. Ones culture, society, or personal feelings are the only criteria for deciding what is ethically right or wrong.
C. Determining what is ethically right or wrong is a process of arguing from an appeal to values and principles that justify and legitimize an opinion.
D. Philosophical ethics is simply a process of clarifying values, not a process of justifying them.
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics MCQs for MBA Exams

Which of the following intellectual disciplines provides absolute proof of its conclusions?
A. The social, biological, meteorological, and medical sciences
B. Ethical judgments based on well-reasoned arguments from sound moral principles.
C. The applied sides of engineering, chemistry, and physics.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: D

Identify the statement that is consistent with utilitarian ethical theory:
A. Adhering to a set of principles may well forbid an act that would otherwise provide overall net good consequences.
B. No act is ever morally right or wrong in all cases, in every situation. It will all depend on the act’s consequences.
C. Some actions like murder, theft, rape, and lying are wrong of their very nature, the kind of acts they are. No amount of net good consequences could ever justify them.
D. The end never justifies the means.
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics MCQs with Answers

Which statements are legitimate challenges to utilitarian ethical theory?
A. The end may justify the means.
B. There is no consensus among utilitarians on how to measure and determine the overall good.
C. It is difficult to know how to consider the consequences for all the parties that will be affected by an act.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

Which of the following reasons accounts for utilitarianism dominance among policy makers and administrators?
A. It seems obvious that policy questions should be judged by results and consequences.
B. Policy experts at all levels are focused on results and getting things done.
C. Efficiency is simply another word for maximizing happiness.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

Which proposition correctly describes the concept of a right?
A. Rights protect a persons wants.
B. There is really no distinction between a persons wants and interests. Rights protect both.
C. Rights protect a persons interests.
D. My rights never correspond to your duties and your duties never correspond to my rights.
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics MCQs

Which statement is not true of deontological ethics?
A. Obligations, responsibilities, and commitments determine the correct approach to ethics.
B. While we are committed to the dignity and well-being of individuals, an individual may have to
sacrifice his or her rights in order to generate a net increase in the collective good.
C. Certain acts are wrong and should not be performed, regardless of the overall happiness they may produce.
D. The end does not justify the means.
ANSWER: B

The most influential theory of corporate responsibility of the past century is:
A. The moral minimum model.
B. The classical model.
C. The social contract theory.
D. The stakeholder theory.
ANSWER: B

Ethical issues in business typically arise because of conflicts between an individuals personal moral philosophies and values and
A. the values and attitudes of the organization in which someone works.
B. the values and attitudes of the society in which someone lives.
C. the values and attitudes of the organization in which someone works and the society in which someone lives.
D. the laws and regulations of the country in which someone lives.
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics Questions and Answers

An employee for Acme, Inc., has been asked to carry out an assignment that she believes is wrong. This situation can be classified as
A. ethical.
B. unethical.
C. an ethical issue.
D. a dilemma.
ANSWER: D

A person uncomfortable with his employers hiring only white men is experiencing
A. a conflict of interest.
B. an ethical issue.
C. a feeling of guilt.
D. intra-organizational conflict.
ANSWER: C

The principal cause of ethical compromises within business is
A. helping the company survive.
B. meeting overly aggressive financial or business objectives.
C. meeting schedule pressures.
D. saving jobs.
ANSWER: B

Opportunities for and encouragement of unethical behaviour result when
A. it is easy to engage in unethical behaviour.
B. others engage in unethical behaviour.
C. there is a lack of rules or a lack of enforcement of the rules that do exist.
D. there are too many rules.
ANSWER: C

Taking someone else work and presenting it as ones own without providing adequate credit or compensation to the source is an ethical issue in
A. the game of business.
B. conflict of interest.
C. fairness and honesty.
D. communications.
ANSWER: D

Business Ethics Solved MCQs

Relationships that involve the behaviour of organization members toward customers, suppliers, subordinates, superiors, peers, and others are defined as
A. industrial relationships.
B. business relationships.
C. organizational relationships.
D. ethical relationships.
ANSWER: B

It is most likely, during a takeover attempt, for a firms managers to face an ethical issue because
A. their duties to the firms owners may conflict with their personal interests.
B. the takeover might not be in the shareholders best interests.
C. their duties to the firms owners may conflict with the best interests of society.
D. their duties to the firms owners may be illegal.
ANSWER: A

An activity is probably ethical if
A. it is approved of by most individuals in the organization and is customary in the industry.
B. it is approved of by most individuals in the organization.
C. it is customary in the industry.
D. it is legal.
ANSWER: D

In general when people discover unethical behaviour in their own company they usually
A. try to right the ethical wrong.
B. report it to the authorities outside the company.
C. mind their own business.
D. report it to authorities in the company
ANSWER: C

Individuals personal ethics play a major role in the evaluation of business decisions only when their preferences or values
A. differ from those of their employer.
B. influence their performance in the workplace.
C. are unethical.
D. are ethical.
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics MCQs

Businesses seem most concerned with ethical issues that could
A. offend their union employees.
B. eliminate competition.
C. affect employees.
D. damage the firm.
ANSWER: D

An employee’s response to a moral or ethical issue depends in part on
A. what competitors are doing.
B. how consumers are.
C. what shift He/Sheis working.
D. the structure and culture of the organization.
ANSWER: D

Business ethics comprises
A. laws and regulations that guide behaviour in the world of business.
B. mores, values, and customs that guide behaviour in general.
C. moral principles and standards that guide behaviour in the world of business.
D. the mores, values, and customs that parents teach their children.
ANSWER: C

The ability of a business organization to achieve its business goals is affected by whether its behaviour is judged to be right or wrong by
A. society.
B. its union members.
C. its employees.
D. its competitors
ANSWER: A

An ethical issue is a problem, situation, or opportunity
A. that harms consumers.
B. that harms the environment.
C. requiring society to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.
D. requiring an individual or organization to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong, ethical or unethical.
ANSWER: D

Business Ethics MCQs

A person who is punished (or not rewarded) for unethical behaviour
A. will be a model employee.
B. will quit the firm.
C. will continue to behave unethically.
D. is less likely to repeat the behaviour.
ANSWER: D

Honesty and fairness relate to the general ______ of decision makers.
A. unethicalness
B. trustworthiness
C. ethicalness
D. moral attributes
ANSWER: C

Which of the following is an example of an area of business where use of questionable ethics is considered a necessity?
A. Attracting and sustaining new customers.
B. Aggressive accounting practices that stretch the intent of accounting standards.
C. Dealing with other firms who use questionable ethics.
D. None of the statements above is correct.
ANSWER: D

What is meant by the phrase CSR?
A. Corporate Social Responsibility
B. Company Social Responsibility
C. Corporate Society Responsibility
D. Company Society Responsibility
ANSWER: A

What is meant by the phrase teleological ethics?
A. Is used to judge is an action is right, fair and honest.
B. An action can only be judged by its consequences.
C. Developing the individual personal characteristics.
D. The key purpose of ethics is to increase freedom.
ANSWER: B

Business Administration MCQs about Business Ethics

Define morality?
A. What is considered as correct within a society
B. Making the right decision’ s where there is a chance to do wrong
C. Defining what is right and wrong for an individual or a community
D. Where individuals have a conscious choice to make a right and ethical decsion
ANSWER: C

What is business ethics?
A. The study of business situations, activities, and decisions where issues of right and wrong are addressed
B. Defined as decisions organisations make on issues that could be considered right or wrong
C. Ethics that can be applied to an organisationspractises
D. Ethical processes businesses use in order to achieve a good ethical standard
ANSWER: A

Ethics & Law overlap. This is called ———-
A. Yellow area
B. White area
C. Black area
D. Grey area
ANSWER: D

Spot the ethical company
A. Primark
B. Nike
C. The Body shop
D. Enron
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics Solved MCQs

Which is not a reason a business engages in business ethics?
A. To avoid the loss of a good corporate image or being sued for misconduct
B. To enhance global relationships
C. To enhance stakeholder relationships
D. To build corporate reputation
ANSWER: B

What are ethical theories?
A. Ethical theories are conduct that should be followed in order to have good ethical practise
B. Ethical theories are the rules and principles that determine right and wrong for any given situation
C. Ethical theories are ancient hypothesis on how to create good business practise
D. Ethical the0ries give guidelines on how to achieve a good corporate image
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics MCQs

Define ethical absolutism/cognitivism
A. Global, strict and absolute rules on right and wrong according to ethical conduct
B. Claims morality is context dependent and subjective there are no universal right and wrongs that can
be rationally determined
C. Right and wrong is objective and determined by the organisations culture
D. Claims there are eternal, universally applicable moral principles. Right and wrong are objective
qualities.
ANSWER: D

Utilitarianism theory
A. According to utilitarianism, an action is morally right if it results in the greatest amount of good for
the greatest amount of people affected by the action
B. According to utilitarianism, an action is morally right if results in the most amount of good possible in
the given situation
C. Is if you do a whole lotta good
D. According to utilitarianism, an action is morally right if it results in the least amount of negativity
possible
ANSWER: A

Utilitarianism theories
A. Jeremy Stuart Mills & John Mills
B. Jeremy Bentham & John Stuart Mills
C. Jeremy Bentham & John Stuart Smith
D. Jeremy Stuart Mills & John Newton
ANSWER: B

Who invented ethics of duty
A. Wilson, H
B. Wilson, I
C. Kant, H
D. Kant, I
ANSWER: D

Business Ethics Multiple Choice Questions

The application of ethical principles rather than actual specified actions would refer to
A. Ethical standards
B. Ethical dilemmas
C. Morality
D. Virtue ethics
ANSWER: C

A recommended way of minimizing unethical behavior is for employees to _____________
A. Write anonymous notes to ethical violators.
B. Immediately report all suspicious behavior to top management.
C. Spend part of their vacation preparing a personal philosophy of ethics.
D. Confront fellow employees about ethical deviations.
ANSWER: D

Professional codes of ethics are binding ___________
A. To all individuals within the profession
B. To individuals who hold that particular credential or membership
C. Only to only individuals who hold a specialty certification
D. To all professionals except students
ANSWER: B

Honesty and fairness relate to the general ______ of decision makers.
A. Unethicalness
B. Trustworthiness
C. Ethicalness
D. Employability
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics MCQs

Ethics is about ____
A. Tangible and intangible benefits
B. Only tangible benefits
C. Only intangible benefits
D. Something other than the above
ANSWER: A

Ethics is the same as ___________
A. Legality
B. Strict compliance
C. Conformance to agreed values
D. Following black letter law
ANSWER: C

Bribery and secret commissions are:
A. Culturally acceptable
B. Unaccepted as business practice
C. Alright under certain circumstances
D. Are OK if they are called something else
ANSWER: B

Ethical investment
A. Is an investment of time
B. An investment of money
C. An investment according to value principles
D. An investment that avoids shares in tobacco
ANSWER: C

Professional ethics is
A. monopolistic
B. Designed to protect a profession
C. A necessary attribute of a profession
D. Not directly relevant to practice
ANSWER: C

Quantification in ethics may be done by
A. Putting monetary value on prospective actions
B. Comparing the value of one action with another
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A or B
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics MCQs

When communicating a code of conduct
A. Focus on values that should guide decision making
B. Provide the same code of conduct to all departments regardless of its length.
C. Refrain from changing the code of conduct regularly
D. Fewer employees will read the code if it is short
ANSWER: A

The __________ approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives is proactive and inspirational.
A. Rules
B. Compliance
C. Principles
D. Values
ANSWER: D

Which of the following is false?
A. The ethics officer is typically a middle-level manager.
B. The ethics officer typically reports directly to the CEO.
C. The ethics officer can be hired from inside or outside of the firm.
D. The ethics officer can also be called the director of ethics or director of internal audit
ANSWER: A

Hedonism
A. Is the greatest happiness of the greatest number
B. Is the opposite of utilitarianism
C. Is the same as deontology
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

The _________ approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives focuses on meeting required behavior norms or obeying the letter of the law
A. Rules
B. Compliance
C. Principles
D. Values
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics MCQs

Virtue Ethics —————
A. Assumes good businesses will make good decisions
B. Assumes good governments willenfore good ethical practises on their businesses
C. Assumes good persons will make good decisions and personal qualities affect decisions
D. Assumes good persons will make good decisions but it has nothing to do with personal qualities.
ANSWER: C

Platos Virtues
A. Wisdom, courage, self-control & justice
B. Confidence, motivation, & control
C. Happiness, goodness & love
D. Wisdom, confidence, happiness and justice
ANSWER: A

Under the 2004 sentencing guidelines, the __________ are expected to oversee the compliance and ethics program while __________ is/are charged with ensuring its effectiveness within the company.
A. Board of directors top management
B. Board of directors the CEO
C. The CEO general managers
D. The company ethics officer top management
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics MCQs

The classical view of social responsibility holds that management only social responsibility is to ___________________.
A. maximize organizational profits for stockholders
B. maximize adherence to the laws for stockholders
C. maximize organizational profits for stakeholders
D. minimize adherence to the laws for stockholders
ANSWER: A

The most outspoken advocate of the classical view of social responsibility is economist and Nobel laureate, __________________.
A. Carnegie Milton
B. Charles Darwin
C. Milton Friedman
D. Milton Freeman
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics Solved MCQs

How many stages are in the model of an organization social responsibility progression?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
ANSWER: B

According to the model of the expansion of an organization social responsibility, Stage 2 adds an interest in ________________.
A. stockholders
B. human resource concerns
C. safe products
D. air prices
ANSWER: B

According to the model of the expansion of an organization social responsibility, Stage 3 is noted by an added interest in ________________.
A. stockholders
B. human resource concerns
C. owners
D. customers/suppliers
ANSWER: D

The belief that businesses should be responsible because such actions are right for their own sake is known as which argument for social responsibility?
A. public expectation
B. ethical obligation
C. public image
D. discouragement of further government regulation
ANSWER: A

The belief that businesses that help solve difficult social problems create a desirable community and attract and keep skilled employees is known as which argument for social responsibility?
A. ethical obligation
B. public image
C. better environment
D. possession of resources
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics MCQs

Which argument for social responsibility puts forth the belief that by becoming socially responsible, businesses can expect to have less government regulation?
A. discouragement of further government regulation
B. stockholder interests
C. public expectations
D. public image
ANSWER: A

The belief that businesses have the financial, technical, and managerial resources to support needed public and charitable projects is known as which argument?
A. public expectations .
B. possession of resources
C. public image
D. ethical obligations
ANSWER: B

Social obligation is the obligation of a business to meet its _______________.
A. social and technological responsibilities
B. economic and legal responsibilities
C. technological and economic responsibilities
D. economic and social responsibilities
ANSWER: B

Social responsiveness refers to the capacity of a firm to adapt to changing _________________.
A. societal conditions
B. organizational conditions
C. societal leaders
D. organizational managers
ANSWER: A

When a firm advertises that it only uses recycled paper products, it is ________________.
A. meeting its social obligation
B. being socially responsive
C. meeting social responsibilities
D. paying attention to the bottom line
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics MCQs with Answers

There is __________ to say that a company socially responsible actions significantly hurt its long-term economic performance.
A. not any evidence
B. little evidence
C. a lot of evidence
D. mounting evidence
ANSWER: B

Which of the following organizational structural characteristics would most likely result in managerial ethical behavior?
A. few job descriptions
B. formal rules
C. mixed messages from authority figures
D. performance appraisal systems focused on outcomes
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is not a way for management to reduce unethical behavior?
A. select individuals with high ethical standards
B. establish codes of conduct
C. provide ethics training
D. monitor employee telephone calls
ANSWER: D

A _____________ is a formal statement of an organization primary values and the ethical rules it expects its employees to follow
A. mission statement
B. statement of purpose
C. code of ethics
D. vision statement
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics PDF MCQs

More than any other quality of leadership, employees crave _________________.
A. ethics
B. honesty
C. integrity
D. morals
ANSWER: B

Why should managers communicate to employees what they believe about ethics and values?
A. to provide ethical leadership
B. to be good whistleblowers
C. to offer social impact management
D. to provide formal mechanisms to protect employees who face ethical dilemmas
ANSWER: A

Why should managers assure whistleblowers that they will face no personal or career risks?
A. Using the rewards system is often not enough
B. Many may be reluctant to raise ethical concerns
C. some may not wish to push their values on to other employees.
D. Most do not want to lead by example
ANSWER: B

At what level does ethical reasoning indicate that moral values reside in maintaining expected standards and living up to the expectations of others?
A. principled level
B. preconventional level
C. conventional level
D. value level
ANSWER: C

The company brings in help from outside to evaluate the situation. The routine evaluations that are performed regularly are called _____________.
A. ethical training sessions
B. independent social audits
C. formal protective mechanisms
D. informal behavior modification
ANSWER: B

The primary debate about ethics training programs is whether _________________.
A. ethics can be taught
B. ethics is what causes misconduct
C. the programs cover misconduct outside the workplace
D. the programs give unethical individuals more ammunition
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics Questions and Answers

Ethics is about
A. improvement in standard
B. rewards and sanctions
C. reputation
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

Ethics is the same as
A. Legality
B. Strict compliance
C. Conformance to agreed values
D. Following black letter law
ANSWER: C

Where does ethical loyalty primarily lie
A. Towards family
B. Towards agreed principles
C. Towards the company
D. Towards professional standards
ANSWER: B

Ethics is concerned about
A. The means of achieving something
B. The ends to be achieved
C. Neither of those
D. Both of those
ANSWER: D

Business Ethics Past MCQs with Answers

Self-regulation of ethics is
A. The best system available
B. One that requires legal backing
C. A good way to start
D. The worst possible way to start
ANSWER: C

Ethical investment
A. Is an investment of time
B. An investment on money
C. An investment that avoids shares in tobacco
D. An investment according to value principles
ANSWER: D

Stakeholders
A. Are the same as shareholders
B. May be the same as shareholders
C. Are not employees
D. Are members of the stock exchange
ANSWER: B

The commercial values of ethics
A. Lies in its capacity to increase turnover
B. Has a consequence of improving the bottom line
C. Lies purely in reputational advantages
D. Increases market share
ANSWER: B

Time frames for ethics involves
A. Short time frames
B. Long time frames
C. No time frames
D. Fluctuations in time frames
ANSWER: B

Professional ethics is
A. Monopolistic
B. Designed to product a profession
C. A necessary attribute of a profession
D. Not directly relevant to practice.
ANSWER: C

Business Ethics MCQs with Answers

Periodic ethics audits
A. Are required by the Indian stock exchange
B. A method of fostering ethics
C. a method of quantitative assessment
D. always use external consultants
ANSWER: B

Ethics
A. Is the same as morals
B. Is a formal code of specific application
C. Is a term of Latin origin
D. Is an implied set of values
ANSWER: B

Hedonism
A. Is the greatest happiness of the greatest number
B. Is the opposite of utilitarianism
C. Is the same as deontology
D. None of the above
ANSWER: A

Moral development
A. Kohlbergs theory is about moral development
B. Kohlbergs theory is about childhood behavior
C. Moral development is irrelevant to adulthood
D. Takes place only in the workplace
ANSWER: A

Qualification in ethics may be done by
A. A putting monetary value on prospective actions
B. Comparing the value of one action with another
C. both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
ANSWER: C

NTS past Paper MCQs of Business Ethics

Excellence is
A. An aspirational goal
B. Unachievable
C. A chimera
D. A fundumbulator
ANSWER: A

Physical factors in ethics
A. Are not worth considering
B. Do make a contribution to our understanding
C. Do not depend upon genes
D. Have been shown to be irrelevant
ANSWER: B

Indigenous values
A. Are irrelevant to ethics
B. Are a valuable means of discussing ethics
C. Should be the basis of business ethics
D. Are always deontologically bases
ANSWER: B

The Hart Delvin debate was about
A. Morals verses ethics
B. Morals without ethics
C. The intersection of law and moral
D. Civil versus criminal law
ANSWER: C

Black letter law is the same as
A. Compliance with strict legal interpretation
B. Compliance with the sprit of the law
C. A form of jurismania
D. Laws which are enacted
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics MCQs for NTS

Legal contracts
A. Are set in irredeemable form
B. Open to renegotiation
C. Are the same moral contracts
D. Have the same meaning in different cultures
ANSWER: B

The reasonable man is
A. The man on the Mumbai train
B. The man who pilots a jet fighter
C. The man who is a logician
D. Someone who agrees with you
ANSWER: A

Which one of the following is an example of an informal code
A. A police person deciding if a law has been broken
B. A social teacher deciding whether a pupil is a nuisance
C. A breach of a professional code of conduct
D. Parking in breach of local government regulations
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is an ethical issues

A. a breach of a professional code of conduct by a relevant professional
B. allegation of serious professional misconduct
C. allegation of business impropriety
D. breaking a law which has a moral basis
ANSWER: A

Which of the following should take place in any alleged breach of ethical guidelines
A. finding the section of the code that has been breached
B. recording the facts of the alleged breach
C. deciding on the case
D. determining the sanction
ANSWER: A

FPSC past paper MCQs about Business Ethics

Which of the following is the direct expression of a plain untruth
A. suggestio falsi
B. equivocation
C. suppression veri
D. a diplomatic fabrication
ANSWER: A

If a company has a code and an employed professional within the company finds him self in breach which code has primacy
A. the company code
B. their professional code
C. their conscience
D. what their family tell them to do
ANSWER: B

In ethical decision making which statement is acceptable
A. economics never has a part to play
B. economics is always a consideration
C. economics should be prime
D. only in serious cases should economics play a part
ANSWER: D

Guarantee for life means
A. for the life of the purchaser
B. for the life of the object
C. for a specified time to be determined
D. as an unqualified statement it means nothing
ANSWER: D

Sanction has more than one meaning which of the following is one of them
A. to punish
B. to agree and to back the proposal or action
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
ANSWER: C

Past Papers MCQs of Business Ethic

Ethical gradualism means
A. where there is room for discretion guidance is prime
B. never use punishment for ethical breaches
C. gaining a degree in ethics
D. the use of procedural rules
ANSWER: A

A Decision Tree is
A. a method of proceeding to resolve an ethical breach
B. a branch office of the main company that determines ethics
C. determining the appropriate sanction for a ethics
D. an instruction to come to a determined conclusion
ANSWER: A

An ethical infrastructure should contain
A. a formalised code
B. a list of sanctions
C. a compliance officer
D. a mission statement
ANSWER: A

Training in ethics may be fostered by
A. never using sanction
B. always using sanction
C. rewarding ethical behaviour
D. suppressing reporting of ethical breaches
ANSWER: C

Required annual reporting on ethics progress should
A. assist in concentrating attention to ethics matters
B. ensure that ethics is firmly on the corporate agenda
C. trivialise ethics
D. an important that is not in company interests
ANSWER: B

Business Ethics MCQs from Past Papers

Which of the following are significant aids to fostering ethics
A. mentoring
B. games
C. neither A nor B
D. both A and B
ANSWER: D

The rules of meeting are important for
A. corporate governance
B. wider understanding of formal processes
C. to manipulate people
D. to ensure fair hearings
ANSWER: D

Ethical performance may be measured by
A. reputation
B. ethical climate audit
C. psychophysical scaling
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D

A code of ethics should contain
A. the key principles of ethics
B. only the code of conduct
C. a mission statement
D. a list of sanction
ANSWER: A

Moral training is derived from
A. religion
B. parents
C. schools
D. combinations of sources
ANSWER: D

The role of individuals in ethics is
A. an important general consideration
B. irrelevant
C. only important in management
D. applicable only to boards
ANSWER: A

Business Ethics MCQs for Business Studies

Eco friendly is a term that has a similar meaning as
A. green
B. purple
C. climate change
D. carbon footprint
ANSWER: A

Immigration
A. also imports different value standards
B. interferes with business
C. depletes naturals resources
D. is a form of flattery
ANSWER: A

Volunteering
A. is a form of corporate philanthropy
B. is not involved in corporate philanthropy
C. may only be done personally
D. is only done through organisations
ANSWER: A

Religion
A. plays a vital role in business
B. has no role to play in business
C. has some role to play in business
D. is purely a personal matter
ANSWER: C

A term of similar meaning to CSR is
A. TBL
B. Mol
C. ISC
D. UNWWRA
ANSWER: A

Do no harm is the prime principle of which set of ethics`
A. business
B. medicine
C. law
D. tai chi
ANSWER: B

The converse of privacy is
A. prudence
B. suffering
C. openness
D. due diligence
ANSWER: C

The corruption index is available on
A. the TI website
B. via telephone
C. via mail
D. from local government
ANSWER: A

It is the function of an ethics code to
A. set standards
B. apply sanction
C. neither
D. both
ANSWER: D

For More Business Administration MCQs click Here

Business Ethics MCQs Read More »

Cost Accounting MCQs

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers For All Kind of Exams

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers for All Exams
The basic objective of cost accounting is__________.
A. tax compliance.
B. financial audit.
C. cost ascertainment.
D. profit analysis.
ANSWER: C

The direct cost incurred can be identified with ________.
A. each department.
B. each unit of output.
C. each month.
D. each executive.
ANSWER: B

Overhead cost is the total of ____________.
A. all indirect costs.
B. all direct costs.
C. indirect and direct costs.
D. all specific costs.
ANSWER: A

Cost classification can be done in __________.
A. two ways.
B. three ways.
C. four ways.
D. several ways.
ANSWER: D

Costing refers to the techniques and processes of __________ .
A. ascertainment of costs.
B. allocation of costs.
C. apportion of costs.
D. distribution of costs.
ANSWER: A

Wages paid to a labor who was engaged in production activities can be termed as ___________.
A. direct cost.
B. indirect cost.
C. sunk cost.
D. imputed cost.
ANSWER: A

Classification of cost is useful to ______________.
A. to find gross profit.
B. to find net profit.
C. to identify costs.
D. to identify efficiency.
ANSWER: C

Elements of costs are _________.
A. three types.
B. four types.
C. five types.
D. seven types.
ANSWER: A

Direct expenses are also called ________ .
A. major expenses.
B. chargeable expenses.
C. overhead expenses.
D. sundry expenses.
ANSWER: B

Indirect material used in production is classified as.
A. office overhead.
B. selling overhead.
C. distribution overhead.
D. production overhead.
ANSWER: D

Warehouse rent is a part of _________.
A. prime cost.
B. factory cost.
C. distribution cost.
D. production cost.
ANSWER: C

Cost Accounting MCQs for FPSC

Indirect material scrap is adjusted along with ________.
A. prime cost.
B. factory cost.
C. labour cost.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: B

Sale of defectives is reduced from _________.
A. prime cost.
B. works cost.
C. cost of production.
D. cost of sales.
ANSWER: C

Tender is an __________.
A. estimation of profit.
B. estimation of cost.
C. estimation of selling price.
D. estimation of units.
ANSWER: C

Cost of sales plus profit is __________.
A. selling price.
B. value of finished product.
C. value of goods produced.
D. value of stocks.
ANSWER: A

Prime cost includes.
A. direct materials, direct wages and indirect expenses .
B. indirect materials and indirect labour and indirect expenses.
C. direct materials, direct wages and direct expenses.
D. direct materials, indirect wages and indirect expenses.
ANSWER: C

Total of all direct costs is termed as _______.
A. prime cost.
B. works cost.
C. cost of sales.
D. cost of production.
ANSWER: A

Depreciation of plant and machinery is a part of ___________.
A. factory overhead.
B. selling overhead.
C. distribution overhead.
D. administration overhead.
ANSWER: A

Audit fees is a part of __________.
A. works on cost.
B. selling overhead.
C. distribution overhead.
D. administration overhead.
ANSWER: D

Counting house salary is part of _____. A. factory overhead.
B. selling overhead.
C. distribution overhead.
D. administration overhead.
ANSWER: D

Cost Accounting Solved MCQs

for PPSC, KPPSC, SPSC,BPSC

One of the most important tools in cost planning is _______.
A. direct cost.
B. budget.
C. cost sheet.
D. marginal costing.
ANSWER: C

An example of variable cost is __________.
A. property tax.
B. interest on capital.
C. direct material cost.
D. depreciation of machinery.
ANSWER: C

Cost accounting concepts include all the following except ________.
A. planning.
B. controlling.
C. profit sharing.
D. product costing.
ANSWER: C

Toy manufacturing industry should use ___________.
A. unit costing.
B. process costing.
C. batch costing.
D. multiple costing.
ANSWER: C

Job costing used in ____ .
A. paper mills.
B. chemical works.
C. printing works.
D. textile mill.
ANSWER: C

When premises are owned, a charge for rent is _________.
A. production cost.
B. imputed cost.
C. marginal cost.
D. cost of sales.
ANSWER: B

A document which provides for the detailed cost centre and cost unit is ______.
A. tender.
B. cost sheet.
C. . invoice.
D. profit statement.
ANSWER: B

Cost unit of a sugar industry can be _______.
A. per litre.
B. per tonne.
C. per acre.
D. per metre.
ANSWER: B

The ascertainment of costs after they have been incurred is known as _____.
A. marginal costing.
B. historical costing.
C. sunk cost.
D. notional cost.
ANSWER: B

Direct material is a _________.
A. fixed cost.
B. variable cost.
C. semi variable cost.
D. semi fixed cost.
ANSWER: A

Past Paper MCQs of Cost Accounting

for PTS, NTS, ATS

Direct material is a ______.
A. manufacturing cost.
B. administrative cost.
C. selling cost.
D. distribution cost.
ANSWER: A

The most important element of cost in manufacturing industries is __________.
A. material.
B. labour.
C. direct costs.
D. indirect costs.
ANSWER: C

Continuous stock taking is a part of __________.
A. annual stock taking.
B. perpetual inventory.
C. ABC analysis.
D. VED analysis.
ANSWER: B

The ratios which reflect managerial efficiency in handling the assets is ________.
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A

The ratios which reveal the final result of the managerial policies and performance is _____________.
A. turnover ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: B

Return on investment is a _____________.
A. turnover ratios.
B. short term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratios.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: C

Net profit ratio is a ___________.
A. turnover ratio.
B. long term solvency ratio.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. profitability ratio. ANSWER: D

Stock turnover ratio is a __________.
A. turnover ratio.
B. profitability ratio.
C. short term solvency ratio.
D. long term solvency ratio.
ANSWER: A

Current ratio is a _________.
A. short-term solvency ratio.
B. long-term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratio.
D. turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A

Proprietary ratio is a ___________.
A. short-term solvency ratio.
B. long-term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratio.
D. turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B

MCQs of Cost Accounting for ETEA

Fixed assets ratio is a __________.
A. short-term solvency ratio.
B. long-term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratio.
D. turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B

Fixed assets turnover ratio is a ______.
A. short-term solvency ratio.
B. long-term solvency ratio.
C. profitability ratio.
D. turnover ratio.
ANSWER: D

The ratio which measures the profit in relation to capital employed is known as_______.
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. operating ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: A

The ratio which determines the profitability from the shareholders point of view is____.
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: C

Return on equity is also called ___________.
A. return on investment.
B. gross profit ratio.
C. return on shareholders funds.
D. return on net worth.
ANSWER: D

Preliminary expenses is an example of ___________.
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: C

Prepaid expenses is an example of _______.
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: B

The ratio which is calculated to measure the productivity of total assets is_________.
A. return on equity.
B. return on share holders funds.
C. return on total assets.
D. return on equity share holders funds.
ANSWER: C

The ratio which shows the proportion of profits retained in the business out of the current years profits is _________.
A. retained earnings ratio.
B. pay out ratio.
C. earnings per share.
D. price earnings ratio.
ANSWER: A

The dividend is related to the market value of shares in _________.
A. interest cover ratio.
B. fixed dividend cover ratio.
C. debt service coverage ratio.
D. dividend yield ratio.
ANSWER: D

Cost Accounting Past tests MCQs with Answers

Turnover ratio is also known as ______________.
A. activity ratios.
B. solvency ratios.
C. liquidity ratios.
D. profitability ratios.
ANSWER: A

Inventory or stock turnover ratio is also called __________.
A. stock velocity ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A

Which ratio is calculated to ascertain the efficiency of inventory management in terms of capital investment __________.
A. stock velocity ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: A

Sales-Gross Profit = _________.
A. net profit.
B. cost of production.
C. administrative expenses.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: D

Opening stock + purchases + direct expenses-closing stock = __________.
A. net profit.
B. cost of production.
C. administrative expenses.
D. cost of goods sold.
ANSWER: D

Which ratio measures the number of times the receivables are rotated in a year in terms of sales _________.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors turnover ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: B

Debtors turnover ratio is also called _______.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. creditors velocity ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio
ANSWER: B

Creditors turnover ratio is also called ________________.
A. stock turnover ratio.
B. debtors velocity ratio.
C. accounts payables ratio.
D. working capital turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C

The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is called __________.
A. liquid ratio.
B. acid test ratio.
C. current ratio.
D. cash position ratio.
ANSWER: C

Internationally accepted current ratio is ___________.
A. 1:1.
B. 2:1.
C. 3:1.
D. 4:1.
ANSWER: B

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers

Liquid ratio is also called __________.
A. super quick ratio.
B. acid test ratio.
C. current ratio.
D. cash position ratio.
ANSWER: B

Current assets- (stock + prepaid expenses = _____________.
A. current assets.
B. fixed assets.
C. liquid assets.
D. fictitious assets.
ANSWER: C

An ideal liquid ratio is _____________.
A. 0.25 : 1.
B. 0.50 : 1.
C. 0.75 : 1.
D. 1 : 1.
ANSWER: D

An ideal cash position ratio is ___________ .
A. 0.25 : 1.
B. 0.50 : 1.
C. 0.75 : 1.
D. 1 : 1.
ANSWER: C

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers

An ideal debt equity ratio is ____________.
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
ANSWER: A

The ratio establishes the relationship between fixed assets and long-terms funds is ______.
A. current ratio.
B. fixed assets ratio.
C. fixed assets turnover ratio.
D. debt equity ratio.
ANSWER: B

The ratio compares the shareholders funds and total tangible assets is ___________.
A. capital gearing ratio.
B. fixed assets turnover ratio.
C. proprietary ratio.
D. debt equity ratio.
ANSWER: C

The ratio expresses the relationship between the proprietors funds and the total tangible assets is ___________.
A. capital gearing ratio.
B. fixed assets turnover ratio.
C. proprietary ratio.
D. debt equity ratio.
ANSWER: C

The ratio establishes relationship between fixed interest and dividend bearing funds and equity shareholders funds is __________.
A. capital gearing ratio.
B. fixed assets turnover ratio.
C. proprietary ratio.
D. debt equity ratio.
ANSWER: A

Capital gearing ratio is also known as ____.
A. leverage ratio.
B. fixed assets turnover ratio.
C. proprietary ratio.
D. debt equity ratio.
ANSWER: A

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers

Shareholders funds + Long-term loans = __________ .
A. current assets.
B. current liabilities.
C. fixed assets.
D. capital employed.
ANSWER: D

Low turnover of stock ratio indicates _________.
A. solvency position.
B. monopoly situation.
C. overinvestment in inventory.
D. liquidity position.
ANSWER: C

Net capital employed is equal to _______.
A. total assets minus total liabilities.
B. fixed assets plus net-working capital.
C. total assets minus long-term liabilities.
D. total assets.
ANSWER: B

Return on investments is a ________.
A. profit and loss account ratio.
B. balance sheet ratio.
C. combined ratio.
D. turnover ratio.
ANSWER: C

Ratio of net profit before interest and tax to sales is __________.
A. solvency ratio.
B. capital gearing.
C. turnover ratio.
D. operating profit ratio.
ANSWER: D

All those assets which are converted into cash in the normal course of business within one year are known as __________.
A. fixed assets.
B. current assets.
C. fictitious assets.
D. wasting assets.
ANSWER: B

All those liabilities which are payable in cash in the normal course of business within a period of one year are called ___________.
A. long term liabilities.
B. overdraft.
C. short term loans.
D. current liabilities.
ANSWER: D

Any transaction between a current account and another current account does not Affect _________.
A. profit.
B. funds.
C. working capital.
D. capital.
ANSWER: B

Provision for Income tax is ________ .
A. non operating income.
B. operating expense.
C. operating income.
D. appropriation of profits.
ANSWER: D

The branch of accounting which primarily deals with processing and presenting accounting data for internal use in a concern is ____________.
A. inflation accounting.
B. cost accounting.
C. financial accounting.
D. management accounting.
ANSWER: D

Cost Accounting Past Paper MCQs

The term management accountancy was first used in __________.
A. 1950.
B. 1939.
C. 1910.
D. 1947.
ANSWER: B

Management accounting is also known as ________.
A. price level accounting.
B. historical cost accounting.
C. financial accounting.
D. decision accounting.
ANSWER: D

The prime function of management accounting is to _______.
A. assist tax authorities.
B. assist the management in performing its functions effectively.
C. interpret the financial data.
D. record business transactions.
ANSWER: B

Management accounting provides valuable services to management in performing ____.
A. coordinating functions.
B. controlling functions.
C. planning functions.
D. all managerial functions.
ANSWER: D

Management accounting analyses accounting data with the help of ______.
A. auditors.
B. statutory forms.
C. tools and techniques.
D. formula.
ANSWER: C

Management accounting is suitable for _______.
A. large industries and trading concerns.
B. co-operative societies.
C. small businesses.
D. non-profit organizations.
ANSWER: A

Management accounting and cost accounting functions are _________.
A. neutral in effect.
B. complementary in nature.
C. contradictory in nature.
D. does not relate to each other.
ANSWER: B

Management accounting use _____________.
A. quantitative data only.
B. qualitative data only.
C. descriptive data only.
D. both qualitative and qualitative data.
ANSWER: D

The tracing or reassigning of costs to one or more cost objectives is referred to as ______.
A. cost allocation
B. historical costing
C. step up costing
D. cost apportionment
ANSWER: A

Production cost under marginal costing includes _____________.
A. prime cost only .
B. prime cost and fixed overhead .
C. prime cost and variable overhead.
D. prime cost, variable overhead and fixed overhead.
ANSWER: C

Solved Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers

Contribution margin is also known as __________.
A. marginal income .
B. gross profit.
C. net profit.
D. net loss. ANSWER: A

Period costs are _______.
A. overhead costs .
B. prime cost.
C. variable cost.
D. fixed costs.
ANSWER: D

Contribution margin is equal to __________.
A. fixed cost – loss.
B. profit + variable cost.
C. fixed cost- profit.
D. sales- profit.
ANSWER: A

Profit volume Ratio is an indicator of __________.
A. the rate at which goods are sold .
B. the volume of sales .
C. the volume of profit.
D. the rate of profit.
ANSWER: D

Margin of Safety is the difference between _______.
A. planned sales and planned profit .
B. actual sales and break-even sales.
C. planned sales and actual sales .
D. planned sales and planned expenses.
ANSWER: B

An increase in variable costs ___________.
A. increases p/v ratio .
B. increases the profit.
C. reduces contribution .
D. increase margin of safety.
ANSWER: C

An increase in selling price _________.
A. increases the break-even point.
B. decreases the break-even point.
C. does not affect the break-even point.
D. optimize the break even point.
ANSWER: B

A large Margin of Safety indicates ________.
A. over production.
B. over capitalization .
C. the soundness of the business.
D. under capitalization.
ANSWER: C

Angle of incidence is _________.
A. the angle between the sales line and the total cost line.
B. the angle between the sales line and the y-axis.
C. the angle between the sales line and the x-axis.
D. the angle between the sales line and the total profit line.
ANSWER: A

Absorption costing is also known as ____________ .
A. historical costing.
B. real costing.
C. marginal costing.
D. real costing .
ANSWER: A

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers

Under marginal costing stock are valued at __________.
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. variable cost.
D. market price.
ANSWER: C

Absorption costing lays emphasis on __________.
A. production.
B. sales.
C. marketing .
D. advertising .
ANSWER: A

Marginal costing lays emphasis on _________.
A. production.
B. sales.
C. marketing .
D. advertising .
ANSWER: B

Selling price – marginal cost = ________.
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C

Total sales – total variable cost _______.
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. contribution.
D. break-even point.
ANSWER: C

Fixed cost + profit = ________.
A. fixed cost.
B. semi-variable cost.
C. margin of safety.
D. contribution.
ANSWER: D

A high P/V ratio indicates __________.
A. high profitability.
B. low profitability.
C. high loss.
D. break even.
ANSWER: A

A low P/V ratio indicates _____________.
A. high profitability.
B. low profitability.
C. high loss.
D. break even.
ANSWER: B

Fixed cost / P/V ratio = __________.
A. break even point.
B. margin of safety.
C. contribution.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: A

Profit / P/V ratio = __________.
A. break even point.
B. margin of safety
C. contribution.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: B

Important Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers

Sales x P/V ratio- fixed cost = _______ .
A. break even point.
B. margin of safety.
C. profit/ loss.
D. variable cost.
ANSWER: C

Office rent is an example of _______.
A. fixed cost.
B. variable cost.
C. semi-variable cost.
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: A

Raw material is an example of __________.
A. fixed cost.
B. variable cost.
C. semi-variable cost.
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: B

Depreciation is an example of _______________.
A. fixed cost.
B. variable cost.
C. semi-variable cost.
D. direct cost.
ANSWER: A

Marginal costing is a technique of _______________.
A. cost reduction.
B. cost control.
C. budgeting.
D. standard costing.
ANSWER: B

The costs which increase or decrease in proportion to the output and sales are known As ______.
A. fixed cost.
B. variable cost.
C. semi-variable cost.
D. total cost.
ANSWER: B

Break even point is also called _____________.
A. no profit, no loss point.
B. profit zone.
C. loss zone.
D. profit and loss zone.
ANSWER: A

Break even chart is a graphical representation of _______. A. absorption costing.
B. marginal costing.
C. full costing.
D. contract costing.
ANSWER: B

Contribution – fixed cost = ___________.
A. sales .
B. variable cost.
C. profit.
D. fixed cost.
ANSWER: C

Break even sales x P/V ratio = ___________.
A. variable cost.
B. fixed cost.
C. semi-variable cost.
D. contribution.
ANSWER: B

Cost Accounting Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

The budget is a ______________.
A. a post-mortem analysis .
B. a substitute of management .
C. an aid to management .
D. calculation .
ANSWER: C

One of the most important tools of cost planning is _________.
A. budget.
B. direct cost.
C. unit cost.
D. cost sheet.
ANSWER: A

Sales budget is a _________.
A. Functional budget.
B. Expenditure budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget.
ANSWER: A

The budget which usually takes the form of budgeted profit and loss account and balance sheet is known as ___________.
A. Flexible budget .
B. Master budget.
C. Cash budget .
D. Purchase budget.
ANSWER: B

Which of the following is usually a long-term budget _______.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Capital expenditure budget.
ANSWER: D

The fixed-variable cost classification has `a special significance in the preparation of ________.
A. Capital budget.
B. Cash budget.
C. Master budget .
D. Flexible budget .
ANSWER: D

Operation budgets normally cover a period of _____.
A. one to ten years.
B. one to two years.
C. one to five years.
D. one year or less.
ANSWER: D

The entire process of preparing the budgets is known as _______.
A. Planning.
B. Organizing.
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C

Budgetary control starts with ________________.
A. Planning.
B. Organizing.
C. Budgeting.
D. Controlling.
ANSWER: C

Budget designed to remain constant irrespective of the level of activity attained is called _________. A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget.
ANSWER: A

Cost Accounting Solved MCQs

Long-term budgets are prepared for _______________.
A. 1 year.
B. 1-3 years.
C. 1-5 years.
D. 5-10 years.
ANSWER: D

The budget which shows the budgeted quantity of output to be produced during a specific period is __________.
A. Fixed budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Sales budget.
D. Production budget
ANSWER: D

Material consumption budget is prepared on the basis of ______________.
A. Production budget.
B. Sales budget.
C. Fixed budget.
D. Flexible budget.
ANSWER: A

Material budget consists of two parts, one is the consumption budget and another Is ________.
A. Material purchase budget.
B. Material sales budget.
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: A

Materials purchase budget is prepared on the basis of_________ .
A. Material sales budget.
B. Material consumption budget.
C. Material production budget.
D. Material budget.
ANSWER: B

A fixed budget is prepared for only _________.
A. One level of activity.
B. Range of activity.
C. Two level of activity.
D. Three level of activity.
ANSWER: A

The budget starts without any base is _______________.
A. Master budget.
B. Flexible budget.
C. Zero base budgeting.
D. Fixed budget.
ANSWER: C

In production budget closing stock is added with ___________.
A. expense.
B. sales.
C. purchase.
D. material.
ANSWER: B

In production budget opening stock is deducted with_____________.
A. expense.
B. sales.
C. purchase.
D. material.
ANSWER: B

Material requisition is meant for _________.
A. purchase of material.
B. supply of material from stores.
C. sale of material.
D. storage of material.
ANSWER: B

Cost Accounting MCQs with Answers For Competitive Exams

Stock control through stock levels and EOQ is called ________.
A. demand and supply method.
B. perpetual inventory system.
C. control by important and exception
D. automatic order method.
ANSWER: B

JIT inventory system is _____________.
A. Just In Time.
B. Just Inventory Time.
C. Job In Time.
D. Job Inventory Time.
ANSWER: A

Perpetual inventory system involves _________.
A. bincard and stores ledger.
B. bill of material and material requisition.
C. purchase requisition and purchase order.
D. inward and outward invoices.
ANSWER: A

FIFO is____________.
A. Fast Investment in Future Order.
B. First In First Out.
C. Fast In Fast Out
D. Fast Issue Of Fast Order.
ANSWER: D

LIFO method of pricing of materials is more suitable when ______.
A. material prices are rising.
B. material prices are falling.
C. material prices are constant.
D. material prices are fluctuating.
ANSWER: A

The average method of pricing the material issues is useful when_______.
A. material prices are rising.
B. material prices are falling.
C. material prices are constant.
D. material prices are fluctuating.
ANSWER: D

Scrap is _________.
A. residue of material.
B. wastage of material.
C. surplus material.
D. abnormal loss of material.
ANSWER: A

Material is issued by store keeper against.
A. material requisition.
B. material order.
C. goods received note.
D. purchase requisition.
ANSWER: A

EOQ stands for______________.
A. Economic Order Quantity.
B. Essential Order Quantity.
C. Economic Output Quantity.
D. Essential Output Quantity.
ANSWER: A

The document which is prepared after receiving and inspecting material_____.
A. material record note.
B. goods received note.
C. bill of material.
D. inventory record.
ANSWER: B

For More Accounting MCQs Click Here

Cost Accounting MCQs Read More »

What is a project closure.

Project Management MCQs

What is a project closure?

a. The formal process of ending a project or phase
b. The process of reviewing and updating the project plan
c. The process of identifying and assessing project risks
d. The process of monitoring and controlling project progress
Answer: a. The formal process of ending a project or phase

More MCQs about project management click here

What is a project closure. Read More »

What is the purpose of a change control process.

Project Management MCQs

a. To manage and control changes to the project scope, schedule, and budget
b. To manage and control project risks
c. To manage and control project resources
d. To manage and control project stakeholders
Answer: a. To manage and control changes to the project scope, schedule, and budget

What is the purpose of a change control process. Read More »

What is a project risk.

Project Management MCQs

a. An uncertain event or condition that can affect the project’s objectives
b. A tool used to manage project changes
c. A summary of project deliverables and their acceptance criteria
d. A report that summarizes project progress
Answer: a. An uncertain event or condition that can affect the project’s objectives

What is a project milestone?
a. A significant event or accomplishment in a project that marks progress towards a goal or objective
b. A summary of project risks and their impact on the project objectives
c. A tool used to manage project risks
d. A report that summarizes project progress
Answer: a. A significant event or accomplishment in a project that marks progress towards a goal or objective

What is a project risk. Read More »

What is the purpose of a project kickoff meeting.

Project Management MCQs

a. To formally initiate the project and align stakeholders on project objectives, scope, and expectations
b. To review the project’s progress and accomplishments
c. To address project issues and risks
d. To update the project schedule and budget
Answer: a. To formally initiate the project and align stakeholders on project objectives, scope, and expectations

What is the purpose of a project kickoff meeting. Read More »

What is a project charter.

Project Management MCQs

a. A document that outlines the project’s objectives, scope, stakeholders, and other high-level information
b. A document that outlines the project’s detailed plan, schedule, and budget
c. A document that summarizes the project’s progress and accomplishments
d. A document that outlines the project’s risks and mitigation strategies
Answer: a. A document that outlines the project’s objectives, scope, stakeholders, and other high-level information

What is a project charter. Read More »

What is a project scope.

Project Management MCQs

a. The boundaries and deliverables of the project
b. The project team members and their responsibilities
c. The timeline and budget of the project
d. The risks and issues associated with the project
Answer: a. The boundaries and deliverables of the project

What is a project scope. Read More »